Monthly Current Affairs - July 2023

1.
India is planning to host mega air drills called ______ in 2023, in which 12 air forces are expected to come together.
(A)
"Pawan Shakti"
(B)
"Tarang Shakti"
(C)
"Viman Shakti"
(D)
"Vayu Shakti"

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: India is planning to host mega air drills "Tarang Shakti."

2.
Which team has won Historic Dubai Women's Kabaddi Final?
(A)
Uma Kolkata
(B)
Delhi Dynamites
(C)
Gujarat Angels
(D)
Great Marathas

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: The final was featuring the Punjab Panthers vs. Uma Kolkata.

3.
UN removed which country’s name from its latest annual report on the impact of armed conflict on children?
(A)
India
(B)
Russia
(C)
Pakistan
(D)
Sri Lanka

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: UN removed India’s name from its annual report on the impact of armed conflict on children.

4.
Who has become the first Deputy Chief Minister of Chhattisgarh?
(A)
TS Singh Deo
(B)
Brajesh Pathak
(C)
Arun Vora
(D)
Tamradhwaj Sahu

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: TS Singh Deo became the Deputy Chief Minister of Chhattisgarh.

5.
Consider the following statements regarding the recently released report on Critical Minerals for India. 1. India has for the first time identified a comprehensive list of critical minerals. 2. In the report, 30 critical minerals essential for sectors including defense, agriculture, energy, pharmaceuticals, and telecom have been identified. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A)
1 only
(B)
2 only
(C)
Both 1 and 2
(D)
Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation: Union Minister of Mines, Pralhad Joshi released India’s first-ever report on Critical Minerals for India.

6.
Which of the following has become India’s first Public Sector Bank to allow UPI payments to merchants through RuPay Credit Card?
(A)
Canara Bank
(B)
Bank of Baroda
(C)
Union Bank of India
(D)
Axis Bank

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: Canara Bank has become India’s first Public Sector Bank to allow UPI payments to merchants through RuPay Credit Card.

7.
Which of the following institutions has developed the “Report Fish Disease” App?
(A)
ICAR-National Bureau of Fish Genetic Resources
(B)
Central Marine Fisheries Research Institute
(C)
National Fisheries Development Board
(D)
Coastal Aquaculture Authority

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: The ‘Report Fish Disease’ app has been developed by the ICAR-National Bureau of Fish Genetic Resources (NBFGR), Lucknow.

8.
Which state government will launch the ‘one-tap-one-tree’ campaign from 1 July?
(A)
Uttar Pradesh
(B)
Maharashtra
(C)
Odisha
(D)
Rajasthan

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: Uttar Pradesh government to launch ‘one-tap-one-tree’ campaign from 1 July.

9.
India's upgraded Giant Metrewave Radio Telescope (uGMRT) has played a key role in discovering the low-pitch “hum” of gravitational waves. It is located at which place?
(A)
Pune
(B)
Hyderabad
(C)
Jaipur
(D)
Kanpur

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: One of the world's six most sensitive radio telescopes, India's upgraded Giant Metrewave Radio Telescope (uGMRT) in Pune, played a major role in discovering the persistent hum.

10.
Whose name has been included in the “Great Immigrants” list of the Carnegie Corporation of New York?
(A)
Ajay Banga
(B)
Ratan Tata
(C)
N. R. Narayana Murthy
(D)
Narendra Modi

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: World Bank President Ajay Banga got a place in the “Great Immigrants” list.

11.
With reference to the PM Kisan Mobile App, consider the following statements: 1. It has been launched under the Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana (RKVY). 2. The app enables beneficiary farmers under PM KISAN to complete their e-KYC process by using a one-time password or fingerprints. 3. The app will also provide very important information related to the scheme and PM Kisan accounts to the farmers. How many of the above statements are correct?
(A)
Only one
(B)
Only two
(C)
All three
(D)
None

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: PM Kisan Mobile App has been launched under the “Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi”. The app enables beneficiary farmers under PM KISAN to complete their e-KYC process by just scanning their faces on mobile phones instead of using a one-time password or fingerprints. Statement 3 is correct. PM Kisan Mobile App will also provide very important information related to the scheme and PM Kisan accounts to the farmers.

12.
With reference to Artemis Accord signed by India recently, consider the following statements: 1. It is an attempt by India to collaborate on the next generation of space technologies with the US. 2. It will also strengthen the bilateral relations between the US and Russia, as India being part of the group, may act as a mediator between the two nations. 3. The agreement indicates a shift in the US stance towards India by allowing India access to crucial space technology. How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A)
Only one
(B)
Only two
(C)
All three
(D)
None

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: By signing the accord, India has aligned itself with the US-led space exploration program. This shows India’s attempt to collaborate on the next generation of space technologies with the US. The agreement also indicates a shift in the US stance towards India by allowing India access to crucial space technology because in past, there has been instances where the US hindered India’s access to crucial space technology. Russia and China are not part of the group. Hence, there are no chances of mediating. Even if Russia would have been part of the group and India acted as a mediator, it wouldn’t have strengthened the relation between the two nations.

13.
With reference to Disposable income, consider the following statements: 1. It is referred to as gross income, which includes earnings derived from our work, including salaries, wages, bonuses, commissions, and other supplementary sources of income. 2. A decline in disposable income has the potential to decrease consumer spending, which could hinder the growth of the economy and weaken overall stability. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A)
1 only
(B)
2 only
(C)
Both 1 and 2
(D)
Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: For an individual, gross income is your total pay, which is the amount of money you've earned, before taxes and other items are deducted. From the gross income, subtract the income taxes plus other necessary expenditures. The amount left represents the disposable income, i.e., the surplus amount left after all necessary expenditures (rent, transportation costs, etc.) Statement 2 is correct. A decline in disposable income has the potential to decrease consumer spending, which could hinder the growth of the economy and weaken overall stability.

14.
New Collective Quantified Goal (NCQG) was seen in the news recently, and is associated with
(A)
Climate financing
(B)
China Plus One strategy
(C)
Space exploration
(D)
Free Trade Agreements

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: NCQG was established in the 2015 Paris Climate Agreement. The intent of the NCQG is at the bare minimum for developed nations to provide developing countries with the necessary funding to address adaptation and mitigation gaps.

15.
With reference to the “Alligator Gar” consider the following statements: 1. It is one of the biggest freshwater fish in North America. 2. It is categorized as the Least Concern in the IUCN Red Data List. 3. They have sharp teeth which help them to bite their prey. Which of the statements given above is correct?
(A)
1 & 2 only
(B)
2 & 3 only
(C)
1 & 3 only
(D)
1, 2 & 3

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: Alligator Gar is a close relative of the bowfin species. It is a ray-finned euryhaline fish and is one of the biggest freshwater fish in North America and the largest species in the ‘gar’ family. It is categorized as the Least Concern in the IUCN Red Data List. Statement 3 is incorrect. They do not have the ability to bite off pieces of flesh, so they swallow their prey.

16.
Energy Transition Index is published by which organization
(A)
World Economic Forum
(B)
International Energy Agency
(C)
International Renewable Energy Agency
(D)
Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development

Correct Answer: (A)

17.
Which of the following are the discretionary powers given to the Governor of State? 1. Sending a report to the President of India for imposing the President's rule. 2. Appointing the ministers. 3. Reserve certain bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration of the President of India. 4. Making the rules to conduct the business of the State Government. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(A)
1 & 2 only
(B)
1 & 3 only
(C)
2, 3, and 4 only
(D)
1, 2, 3 and 4

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Governor can use discretionary powers: when no party gets a clear majority, he can use his discretion in the selection of a Chief Ministerial candidate to prove the majority as soon as possible.

18.
Which Article of the Indian constitution talks about Uniform Civil Code
(A)
Article 44
(B)
Article 42
(C)
Article 48
(D)
Article 39

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: Article 44 of the Indian constitution talks about Uniform Civil Code.

19.
Consider the following statements 1. Permanent Account Number (PAN) is an eight-character alpha-numeric unique identifier while Aadhaar is a 12-digit alpha-numeric unique identification number. 2. PAN card is issued by the Income Tax Department while Aadhaar is issued by the Unique Identification Authority of India Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A)
1 only
(B)
2 only
(C)
Both 1 and 2
(D)
Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: PAN is a ten-digit unique alphanumeric number issued by the Income Tax Department.

20.
Consider the following statements 1. Liberalised Remittance Scheme (LRS) aims for Tax Collection at Source on foreign remittance. 2. There will be no tax collection at source (TCS) on foreign remittances of up to Rs 7 lakh per financial year Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A)
1 only
(B)
2 only
(C)
Both 1 and 2
(D)
Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation: Recently, Banks have expressed reservations against the proposed 20 per cent tax collected at source (TCS) under the Liberalised Remittances Scheme (LRS), especially credit card spends abroad, and want the government to reconsider the proposal as they feel it imposes a heavy “burden” on them

21.
Joha rice, which was seen in the news, is from which state/UT?
(A)
West Bengal
(B)
Odisha
(C)
Bihar
(D)
Assam

Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation: Scientists at the Institute of Advanced Study in Science and Technology conducted research on the nutraceutical properties of Joha rice, an aromatic rice grown in the Northeastern region of India, especially Assam.

22.
Which Union Ministry announced changes in UAV Export Policy to make it simpler and liberalized?
(A)
Ministry of Commerce and Industry
(B)
Ministry of MSME
(C)
Ministry of Home Affairs
(D)
Ministry of External Affairs

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: The Ministry of Commerce and Industry’s Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT) has made the export policy for civilian drones/UAVs from India simpler and more liberalized, aligning with the focus of India’s Foreign Trade Policy 2023.

23.
Archaeologists have unearthed a 4,000-year-old sanctuary in which country?
(A)
Netherlands
(B)
Greece
(C)
Japan
(D)
China

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: Archaeologists have unearthed a 4,000-year-old sanctuary in the central Netherlands, composed of ditches and burial mounds, believed to have had a similar purpose to Stonehenge.

24.
Heliopolis Memorial, which was seen in the news, is located in which country?
(A)
Egypt
(B)
USA
(C)
Japan
(D)
Germany

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: Prime Minister Narendra Modi visited the Heliopolis War Cemetery in Cairo, Egypt, to honor the memory of around 4,000 Indian soldiers who fought in World War 1 in Egypt and Palestine.

25.
Which country leads the ‘Minerals Security Partnership (MSP)’?
(A)
USA
(B)
India
(C)
Germany
(D)
Italy

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: The establishment of the Minerals Security Partnership (MSP), led by the United States, aims to fast-track the global development of resilient and eco-friendly supply chains for crucial energy minerals.

26.
Consider the following statements: 1. A large amount of rainfall in India is stored and utilized for various purposes. 2. Policymakers exaggerate the need for water conservation as it is not much needed because the Earth is predominantly covered in water, with approximately 71% of its surface consisting of oceans, seas, and other bodies of water. 3. Implementing strict regulations and limitations on water usage can hinder economic growth and development. How many of the above statements is/are correct?
(A)
Only one
(B)
Only two
(C)
All three
(D)
None

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: India receives about 1,200 mm of rainfall each year, yet only 6% is effectively captured and stored. Despite the Earth is predominantly covered in water, there is still a need for water conservation because there is limited availability of freshwater (about 2.5%), and the majority of that is inaccessible in the form of glaciers and polar ice caps, increase in population worldwide has put stress on freshwater resources, climate change is also affecting rainfall patterns and leading droughts, along with other reasons. Industries such as agriculture, manufacturing, and energy production rely heavily on water, and imposing restrictions could negatively impact productivity and economic progress.

27.
Kyriakos Mitsotaki has been elected as the Prime Minister of which country?
(A)
Greece
(B)
France
(C)
South Korea
(D)
Japan

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: Kyriakos Mitsotakis has achieved a majority and has been re-elected for a second term as the Prime Minister of Greece.

28.
What is the rank of India in ‘WCC’s Global Competitiveness Index’?
(A)
40
(B)
20
(C)
30
(D)
35

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: Denmark, Ireland and Switzerland have been named the top three among 64 economies in the 2023 Global Competitiveness Index.

29.
Which bloc has conducted a joint military drill named ‘Solidarity Exercise’?
(A)
ASEAN
(B)
BIMSTEC
(C)
EU
(D)
G-20

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: ‘Solidarity exercise’ is a joint military drill involving the ASEAN nations -Indonesia, Vietnam, Malaysia, Brunei and the Philippines.

30.
Which organization approved USD 255.5 million in loans for Multidisciplinary Education and Research in India?
(A)
World Bank
(B)
IMF
(C)
ADB
(D)
AIIB

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: World Bank recently approved USD 255.5 million loans for the Multidisciplinary Education and Research Improvement in Technical Education Project.

31.
Utah Mountains, which were seen in the news for Watermelon Snow, is situated in which country?
(A)
Indonesia
(B)
USA
(C)
Ukraine
(D)
Russia

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: Watermelon snow is a natural occurrence found in mountainous regions worldwide, where the vibrant color of the snow is caused by a green algae bloom that thrives in cold, snowy conditions.

32.
Consider the following statements: 1. Cyclogenesis occurs when the Earth's magnetic field interacts with atmospheric conditions, leading to gamma-ray bursts. 2. National Cyclone Risk Mitigation Project (NCRMP) aims to enhance the preparedness and resilience of coastal communities. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A)
1 only
(B)
2 only
(C)
Both 1 and 2
(D)
Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: Cyclogenesis is the development or strengthening of cyclonic circulation in the atmosphere (a low-pressure area). National Cyclone Risk Mitigation Project (NCRMP) aims to enhance the preparedness and resilience of coastal communities.

33.
Consider the following statements: 1. Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) is a system implemented by governments to track and monitor the personal financial transactions of individuals, infringing upon their privacy and violating their rights to financial autonomy. 2. Under the Aadhaar-enabled Payment System (AePS), an individual can use their biometric credentials to carry out banking transactions in Aadhaar-linked bank accounts. 3.Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) has been widely recognized as a transformative mechanism that aims to foster financial inclusion. How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A)
Only one
(B)
Only two
(C)
All three
(D)
None of the above

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) is a system implemented by governments to provide welfare benefits and subsidies directly to beneficiaries, bypassing intermediaries and ensuring efficient and transparent delivery of funds. Under the Aadhaar-enabled Payment System (AePS), an individual can use their biometric credentials to carry out banking transactions in Aadhaar-linked bank accounts. DBT encourages people, especially from rural and underprivileged backgrounds, to open bank accounts, thus promoting financial inclusion.

34.
With reference to Precision fermentation, consider the following statements: 1. It involves programming microorganisms, such as yeast, to produce specific proteins by inserting genetic instructions or DNA sequences into their cells. 2. It holds immense potential in minimizing the environmental footprint associated with conventional methods of food production. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A)
1 only
(B)
2 only
(C)
Both 1 and 2
(D)
Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation: Precision fermentation s a cutting-edge technology that combines traditional fermentation methods with precision biology techniques. It involves programming microorganisms, such as yeast, to produce specific proteins by inserting genetic instructions or DNA sequences into their cells. Precision fermentation reduces the environmental impact of food production by minimizing deforestation, soil degradation, and methane emissions from livestock.

35.
Consider the following statements: 1. Yoga, as a philosophical system, revolves around the interpretation and understanding of the Vedas. 2. Shatkarmas, a variety of yogic practice, helps in developing the mind’s inherent capabilities and leads to benefits such as reduced stress, improved memory, and enhanced concentration. 3. Yoga has the power to enhance focus and clarity of thought. How many of the above statements are correct?
(A)
Only one
(B)
Only two
(C)
All three
(D)
None

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: Yoga focuses on the practice of physical postures, breath control, concentration, and meditation to attain self-realization and liberation. Shatkarmas (purification practice), a variety of yogic practice, help cleanses the body and prepares it for more advanced practices. Examples include Kunjal or Varisar Dhauti, which improve digestion, and Jal Neti and Sutra Neti, which aid in the cleansing of the nasal sinus and improvement of eyesight. Yoga has the power to enhance focus and clarity of thought.

36.
National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF) is an initiative of which ministry/Organisation
(A)
NITI Ayog
(B)
Prime Minister's Science, Technology, and Innovation Advisory Council
(C)
Ministry of Education
(D)
University Grants Commission

Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation: Last month, the Department of Higher Education released, National Institutional Ranking Framework, the NIRF attempts to rank Indian higher education institutions (HEIs) across 13 categories and subject domains. This year over 5,000 institutions were ranked and the top 100 institutions (in some cases up to 200) declared in each category.

37.
Consider the following statements 1. United Nations Security Council is one of the six principal organs of the United Nations and is charged with ensuring international peace and security 2. Any reform of the Security Council would require the agreement of at least two-thirds of UN member states in a vote in the General Assembly and must be ratified by two-thirds of Member States including all the permanent members of the Security Council. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A)
1 only
(B)
2 only
(C)
Both 1 and 2
(D)
None of the above

Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The United Nations Security Council is one of the six principal organs of the United Nations and is charged with ensuring international peace and security, recommending the admission of new UN members to the General Assembly, and approving any changes to the UN Charter Statement 2 is correct: Any reform of the Security Council would require the agreement of at least two-thirds of UN member states in a vote in the General Assembly and must be ratified by two-thirds of Member States. All of the permanent members of the UNSC (which have veto rights) must also agree

38.
In History term ‘Damin-i-Koh’ is related to
(A)
Forested hilly areas of Rajmahal hills
(B)
Land revenue practices during Mughal period
(C)
Agricultural practices during Birsa Munda period
(D)
Military cantonment of Ahom Kingdome

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: Damin-i-koh was the name given to the forested hilly areas of Rajmahal hills broadly in the area of present Sahebganj, Pakur, and Godda districts in the Jharkhand.

39.
Consider the following statements, with respect to Mineral Security Partnership (MSP) 1. It is a US-led collaboration of 14 countries that aims to catalyse public and private investment in critical mineral supply chains globally. 2. Recently, India has been inducted to Mineral Security Partnership. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A)
1 only
(B)
2 only
(C)
Both 1 and 2
(D)
Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation: Mineral Security Partnership (MSP), a US-led collaboration of 14 countries that aims to catalyse public and private investment in critical mineral supply chains globally.

40.
Consider the following statements, with respect to the Index of Industrial Production (IIP) 1.It is released by National Statistical Office (NSO) 2. Core industries account for nearly 50 percent of the weight of items included in the IIP. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A)
1 only
(B)
2 only
(C)
Both 1 and 2
(D)
Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: Index of Industrial Production (IIP) is a composite indicator that measures the short-term changes in the volume of production of a basket of industrial products during a given period with respect to that in a chosen base period.

41.
Consider the following statements: 1. PM participated in the centenary celebrations of Delhi University and laid the foundation stone of five buildings. 2. The University of Delhi was established on May 1, 1922. Select the correct code:
(A)
1 only
(B)
2 only
(C)
Both 1 and 2
(D)
Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: PM participated in the centenary celebrations of Delhi University and laid the foundation stone of three buildings.

42.
India's national men's football team reached the _________ spot in the FIFA world rankings.
(A)
100th
(B)
102nd
(C)
105th
(D)
110th

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: India's national men's football team reached the 100th spot in the FIFA world rankings.

43.
Which of the following statements is/ are correct about the National Sickle Cell Anaemia Elimination Mission? 1. It has been launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on 1st July in Uttar Pradesh. 2. It will be implemented in 278 districts of 17 states. Select the correct code:
(A)
1 only
(B)
2 only
(C)
1 and 2
(D)
None of the above

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: National Sickle Cell Anaemia Elimination Mission to be launched by PM Modi in Madhya Pradesh.

44.
The first National Doctor's Day was celebrated in India in ___________.
(A)
2001
(B)
2001
(C)
1996
(D)
1991

Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation: The first National Doctor's Day was celebrated on 1 July 1991.

45.
Defence Ministry has signed a contract of________ rupees with Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited for Medium Refit with Life Certification (MRLC) of Submarine INS Shankush.
(A)
2,885 crores
(B)
2,725 crores
(C)
2,985 crores
(D)
2,505 crores

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: A contract worth Rs 2,725 crore has been signed by the Defence Ministry with Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited.

46.
Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding Lausanne Diamond League? 1. Germany's Julian Weber won the competition with a javelin throw of 87.03m. 2. Javelin thrower Neeraj Chopra finished second in the Lausanne Diamond League title. 3. Jakob Wadlich of the Czech Republic finished third with an 86.13-meter throw. Select the correct code:
(A)
1 and 2
(B)
1 and 3
(C)
2 and 3
(D)
All of the above

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: Javelin thrower Neeraj Chopra won the Lausanne Diamond League title.

47.
Housing Development Finance Corporation has merged with which of the following bank?
(A)
SBI
(B)
HDFC
(C)
ICICI
(D)
PNB

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: HDFC Bank and Housing Development Finance Corporation merger becomes effective from 1 July.

48.
Which of the following won the Asian Kabaddi Championships title for the eighth time?
(A)
South Korea
(B)
India
(C)
Pakistan
(D)
Iran

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: Indian men’s kabaddi team defeated Iran by 42-32 in the finals of the Asian Kabaddi Championships.

49.
Which of the following statements is correct? 1. Growth in the Core sector remain stable at 4.3% in May. 2. Fiscal deficit stood at 11.8 percent of the full-year budget estimates by May-end 2023. Select the correct code:
(A)
1 only
(B)
2 only
(C)
1 and 2
(D)
None of the above

Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation: Growth in the Core sector remains stable at 4.3% in May.

50.
Consider the following statements regarding the Mahila Samman Savings Certificate, 2023. 1. The government has allowed all Public Sector Banks to implement and operationalise Mahila Samman Savings Certificate, 2023. 2. The scheme is in operation since 1st April 2023 through the Department of Post. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A)
1 only
(B)
2 only
(C)
Both 1 and 2
(D)
Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation: The government has allowed all Public Sector Banks to implement and operationalise Mahila Samman Savings Certificate, 2023.

51.
The Startup-20 Summit under India's G-20 Presidency was held at which place on 3 July?
(A)
Gurugram
(B)
Jaipur
(C)
Lucknow
(D)
Hyderabad

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: Startup-20 Summit under India's G-20 Presidency began in Gurugram, Haryana on 3 July.

52.
Which of the following statements is correct regarding International Plastic Bag Free Day 2023? 1. International Plastic Bag Free Day is observed every year on 3rd July. 2. India has imposed a ban on single-use plastics from 1 July 2023. Select the correct code:
(A)
1 only
(B)
2 only
(C)
Both 1 and 2
(D)
Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: International Plastic Bag Free Day is observed every year on 3rd July.

53.
UAE-India Economic Summit was held at which place on 3rd July?
(A)
Abu Dhabi
(B)
New Delhi
(C)
Singapore
(D)
Paris

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: UAE-India Economic Summit was held in Abu Dhabi.

54.
Who has been reappointed as Solicitor General of India for three years?
(A)
Vikramjeet Banerjee
(B)
Suryaprakash V Raju
(C)
Tushar Mehta
(D)
Suraj Mehta

Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation: Tushar Mehta has been reappointed as Solicitor General of India for three years.

55.
PM Modi recently inaugurated the Sai Hira Global Convention Centre in Puttaparthi located in which of the following states?
(A)
Andhra Pradesh
(B)
Karnataka
(C)
Kerala
(D)
Telangana

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: PM Modi inaugurated the Sai Hira Global Convention Centre in Puttaparthi, Andhra Pradesh through video conferencing.

56.
With which of the following has National Anti-Doping Agency, India (NADA India) signed an MoU to increase regional cooperation in anti-doping in sports?
(A)
Central Asia Regional Anti-Doping Organization
(B)
East Asia Regional Anti-Doping Organization
(C)
South Asia Regional Anti-Doping Organization
(D)
West Asia Regional Anti-Doping Organization

Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation: National Anti-Doping Agency, India (NADA India) has signed an MoU with South Asia Regional Anti-Doping Organization (SARADO).

57.
The government launched a scheme for pregnant minor rape victims. Which of the following statements is/are correct about it? 1. It has been launched with an outlay of Rs 74.10 crore. 2. Women more than 20 years are eligible for the scheme. Select the correct code:
(A)
1 only
(B)
2 only
(C)
1 and 2
(D)
None of the above

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: A scheme for providing shelter, food, and legal aid to pregnant minor victims of sexual assault, who have no family support, has been launched by Union Minister Smriti Irani.

58.
Indian Bank has unveiled new services under which Project?
(A)
Project WAVE
(B)
Project HIMMAT
(C)
Project LAHAR
(D)
None of the above

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: Indian Bank has launched new services under its digital transformation initiative — Project WAVE.

59.
Which of the following states has regained first place in electronic exports in India?
(A)
Tamil Nadu
(B)
Uttar Pradesh
(C)
Karnataka
(D)
Maharashtra

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: Tamil Nadu has regained first place in electronic exports in India.

60.
Jharkhand’s Agriculture Minister Badal Patralekh inaugurated Shravani Mela in ________ on 03 July 2023.
(A)
Hazaribagh
(B)
Deoghar
(C)
Ranchi
(D)
Dhanbad

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: Jharkhand’s agriculture minister Badal Patralekh inaugurated Shravani Mela in Deoghar on 03 July 2023.

61.
With reference to Enforcement Directorate consider the following statements 1. It is a statutory body which works It works under the Ministry of Home Affairs. 2. It is mandated with the task of enforcing the provisions of the Foreign Exchange Management Act and Prevention of Money Laundering Act. 3. The minimum tenure of the director of the Enforcement Directorate is two years which can be extended up to five years. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A)
1 and 2 only
(B)
1 only
(C)
2 and 3 only
(D)
1, 2 & 3 only

Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: Enforcement Directorate (ED) is not a statutory body and it works under Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance.

62.
Consider the following statements, with respect to Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) 1. Membership in SCO is limited to Asian countries only. 2. The Member countries of SCO cover approximately 60% of the area and 40% of the world population 3. India is founding member of it. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A)
2 only
(B)
1 and 2 only
(C)
2 and 3 only
(D)
1, 2 & 3 only

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: Recently, 2023 Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) summit is going to be held by India virtually.

63.
Consider the following statements, with reference to National Sickle Cell Anaemia Elimination Mission 1. National Sickle Cell Anaemia Elimination Mission aims to eliminate Sickle Cell Anaemia by 2047 2. It targets screening approximately 7.0 crore people under 40 years of age in the next 3 years 3. The mission focuses on tribal populations which are impacted by Sickle Cell Disease significantly Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A)
1 only
(B)
1 and 2 only
(C)
2 and 3 only
(D)
1, 2 & 3 only

Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation: The National Sickle Cell Anaemia Elimination Program, introduced in the Union Budget 2023, focuses on addressing the significant health challenges posed by sickle cell disease, particularly among tribal populations of the country.

64.
Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure ‘is an initiative of which organization:
(A)
Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO)
(B)
North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)
(C)
Counter-Terrorism Committee under UNSC
(D)
Financial Action Task Force (FATF)

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: The SCO Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure established by the member states of the Shanghai Convention to combat terrorism, separatism and extremism of 15 June, 2001, located in Bishkek, the Kyrgyz Republic, shall be a standing SCO body.

65.
Consider the following statement with reference to the GIFT city 1. It is the first operational smart city and international financial services center of India which is located in Gandhinagar. 2. The GIFT City is located on the bank of the river Sabarmati 3. Country's first international exchange, (India International Exchange (IFSC) Limited (India INX) located at IFSC, GIFT City in Gujarat. Which of the following statement given above is/are correct?
(A)
1 and 3 only
(B)
2 and 3 only
(C)
1 and 2 only
(D)
1, 2 & 3 only

Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation: Recently, The Gujarat International Finance Tec-City, popularly known as GIFT City, will expand by roughly 2,300 acres by incorporating four villages in Gujarat’s Gandhinagar district.

66.
Volcanic activity is monitored through which of the following methods or instruments? 1. Chemical analysis of gases coming out through fumaroles 2. Global Positioning System(GPS) 3. Tiltmeters 4. Seismometers How many of the above options are correct?
(A)
Only one
(B)
Only two
(C)
Only three
(D)
All four

Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation: Volcanic activity is monitored with many different instruments. The perhaps simplest to understand is GPS. The way scientists use GPS is different from that of everyday life. It can detect minuscule movements of a few centimeters. On volcanoes, any upward movement on the surface detected by GPS indicates that something is pushing from underneath.

67.
Consider the following statements regarding Pradhan Mantri Poshan Shakti Nirman (PM POSHAN). 1. The scheme provides one hot cooked meal in Government and Government aided Schools. 2. The Scheme is being implemented by the Ministry of Women and Child Development. 3. The Scheme is implemented only in areas that are poor in nutritional status. How many of the above statements are correct?
(A)
Only one
(B)
Only two
(C)
Only three
(D)
None

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: Centrally Sponsored the Scheme ‘Pradhan Mantri Poshan Shakti Nirman (PM POSHAN)’ for providing one hot cooked meal in Government and Government – aided Schools from 2021-22 to 2025-26. The Scheme is being implemented by the Ministry of Education. Under the Scheme, there is the provision of hot cooked meals to children of pre-schools or Bal Vatika (before class I) in primary schools also in addition to the 11.80 crore children of classes I to VIII studying in 11.20 lakh schools. The Scheme is implemented across the country covering all the eligible children without any discrimination of gender and social class.

68.
The application of Somatic Cell Nuclear Transfer Technology is
(A)
Production of biolarvicides
(B)
Manufacture of biodegradable plastics
(C)
Reproductive cloning of animals
(D)
Production of organisms free of diseases

Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation: In genetics and developmental biology, somatic cell nuclear transfer (SCNT) is a laboratory strategy for creating a viable embryo from a body cell and an egg cell. The technique consists of taking an enucleated oocyte (egg cell) and implanting a donor nucleus from a somatic (body) cell. It is used in both therapeutic and reproductive cloning.

69.
Consider the following statements regarding International Criminal Court (ICC). 1. International Criminal Court (ICC) is the first permanent, treaty based, international criminal court established to help end impunity for the perpetrators of the most serious crimes of concern to the international community. 2. The ICC has universal territorial jurisdiction to investigate and prosecute crimes of international concern. 3. India is a member of the court. How many of the above statements are correct?
(A)
Only one
(B)
Only two
(C)
Only three
(D)
None

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: The International Criminal Court (ICC), located in The Hague, is the court of last resort for prosecution of genocide, war crimes, and crimes against humanity. It is the first permanent, treaty based, international criminal court established to help end impunity for the perpetrators of the most serious crimes of concern to the international community. Its founding treaty, the Rome Statute, entered into force on July 1, 2002.

70.
Consider the following statements with reference to Central Information Commission 1. Central Information Commission is the apex body under India’s transparency regime, which decides whether certain information sought by a citizen ought to be disclosed or not. 2. According to the present RTI Act, Information Commissioners (ICs) appointed to the Central Information Commission have equal status to that of a Supreme Court Judge. 3. When Citizens file applications under the Right to Information Act, and if they are dissatisfied with the response, the final appeal lies with the District Courts. How many of the above statements are correct?
(A)
Only one
(B)
Only two
(C)
Only three
(D)
None

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: The most vital mandate of the Central Information Commission, the apex body under India’s transparency regime, is to decide whether certain information sought by a citizen ought to be disclosed or not. Its primary duty is to decide the disclosure or the non-disclosure of information.

71.
What was the gross Goods and Services Tax (GST) collection in June 2023 in India?
(A)
1.61 lakh crore
(B)
1.61 billion
(C)
1.61 crore
(D)
1.61 lakh

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: The Ministry of Finance reported that the gross GST collection in June 2023 stood at ?1,61,497 crore.

72.
What was the total external debt of India at the end of March 2023?
(A)
$724.7 billion
(B)
$524.7 billion
(C)
$684.7 billion
(D)
$624.7 billion

Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation: India’s external debt has witnessed a slight increase, reaching USD 624.7 billion at the end of March 2023, according to data released by the Reserve Bank. However, the debt-to-GDP ratio has declined during the same period. Valuation gains resulting from the appreciation of the US dollar against major currencies, including the Indian rupee, yen, SDR, and euro, amounted to USD 20.6 billion.

73.
What was the central government’s fiscal deficit as a percentage of the annual target at the end of May 2023?
(A)
11.8%
(B)
18.8%
(C)
21.8%
(D)
23.8%

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: According to the official data, the central government’s fiscal deficit at May-end 2023 stood at 11.8% of the full-year budget estimates.

74.
What is the estimated fiscal deficit at March-end 2024, as per the Budget?
(A)
Rs 1.1 lakh crore
(B)
Rs 17.86 lakh crore
(C)
Rs 17.86 lakh crore
(D)
Rs 19.86 lakh crore

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: As per the Budget, the estimated fiscal deficit at March-end 2024 is Rs 17.86 lakh crore.

75.
What is the average monthly gross GST collection for the first quarter of FY22, FY23, and FY24?
(A)
1.69 lakh crore, 1.51 lakh crore, and 1.10 lakh crore, respectively
(B)
1.10 lakh crore, 1.51 lakh crore, and 1.69 lakh crore, respectively
(C)
1.10 lakh crore, 1.10 lakh crore, and 1.10 lakh crore, respectively
(D)
1.69 lakh crore, 1.10 lakh crore, and 1.51 lakh crore, respectively

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: The average monthly gross GST collection for the first quarter of FY22, FY23, and FY24 is ?1.10 lakh crore, ?1.51 lakh crore, and ?1.69 lakh crore, respectively.

76.
Which sectors are part of the Index of Eight Core Industries (ICI)? 1. Coal 2. Gold 3. Electricity 4. Textiles 5. Fertilizers Choose the correct code
(A)
1 and 3 only
(B)
2, 4 and 5 only
(C)
1, 3 and 5 only
(D)
1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Index of Eight Core Industries (ICI), which measures the combined and individual performance of 8 key sectors in the Indian economy. ICI is released by the Office of the Economic Adviser (OEA), Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion (DIPP), Ministry of Commerce and Industry.

77.
Consider the following statements with respect to Giant Metrewave Radio Telescope (GMRT) 1. It is an array of 30 antennas positioned in a ‘Y’ fashion, centered at Pune, Maharashtra. 2. It is the first telescope to use X-Rays to detect the presence of muons in outer space. How many of the statements given above are correct?
(A)
1 only
(B)
2 only
(C)
Both 1 and 2
(D)
Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: Giant Metrewave Radio Telescope (GMRT) is an array of 30 antennas positioned in a ‘Y’ fashion, centred at Pune, Maharashtra. It is used to detect the cosmic radio waves and support interferometry as well as array mode of operations. Atomic hydrogen gas content of galaxies 9 billion years ago was measured using GMRT. It was one of the world's six large telescopes that played a key role in finding the first direct evidence for the relentless vibrations of the fabric of the universe.

78.
Consider the following statements with respect to Credit Information Companies (CICs) 1. CICs are companies registered under Credit Information Companies Act, 2005. 2. CICs collect public data, credit transactions & payment histories of both individuals and companies. 3. Both banks & Non-banking financial institutions refer to the CIC’s report before granting loan or credit card. How many of the statements given above are correct?
(A)
Only one
(B)
Only two
(C)
Only three
(D)
None

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: “Credit Information Company” means a company formed and registered under the Companies Act, 1956. CICs otherwise called as Credit Information Bureaus have details about all the creditors and borrowers in the financial system. CICs maintain credit information of borrowers (including individuals, corporate, SMEs) which can be accessed by banks and other lending institutions. CICs collects public data, credit transactions & payment histories of both individuals and companies. Both banks & Non-banking financial institutions refer to the CIC’s report before granting loan or credit card.

79.
Consider the following statements with respect to Red Tide 1. They refer to the Harmful Algal Blooms (HABs) on water bodies. 2. HABs grow both in fresh and sea water. 3. HABs are mostly found in the Tampa Bay area of Florida, USA. How many of the statements given above are correct?
(A)
Only one
(B)
Only two
(C)
Only three
(D)
None

Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation: Red Tide is Harmful algal blooms (HABs) which are red in colour. It is caused by microscopic algae that produce toxins that kill fish and make shellfish dangerous to eat.

80.
Diversity for Restoration (D4R), often seen in the news, is associated with which of the following?
(A)
It is a tool that aids in agroforestry and systematic restoration of the ecosystem
(B)
Initiative of Human Rights to restore people displaced by Ukraine-Russia war
(C)
Programme by United Nations for restoration of mangroves along the coasts in Pacific Countries
(D)
It is the initiative of the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment to provide skilled employment to tribal people

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: Diversity for Restoration (D4R) is a tool that enables appropriate agroforestry and aids systematic ecosystem restoration. Diversity for Restoration (D4R) tool was devised by Bioversity International. It was later modified by Ashoka Trust for Research in Ecology and the Environment (ATREE) to adapt it to the Indian context. The tool will help improve the effectiveness of restoration programmes by providing manifold benefits to interested stakeholders while promoting sustainable development.

81.
Financial stability report is released by:
(A)
World Bank
(B)
Reserve Bank of India
(C)
Ministry of Finance
(D)
International Monetary Fund

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: Financial Stability Report (FSR) is a biannual report released by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).

82.
How many of the following committees/commissions are associated with the functioning of Governor? 1. Punchhi Commission 2. Sakaria commission 3. Rajamannar Committee 4. Usha Throat committee Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(A)
Only one
(B)
Only two
(C)
Only three
(D)
None

Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Supreme Court in the Nabam Rebia judgement (2016) ruled that the exercise of Governor’s discretion Article 163 is limited and his choice of action should not be arbitrary or fanciful. It must be a choice dictated by reason, actuated by good faith and tempered by caution.

83.
With reference to the BRICS countries, consider the following statements: 1. South Africa was invited to join BRIC in December 2020. 2. The grouping was formalized during the first meeting of BRIC Foreign Ministers in 2006. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A)
1 only
(B)
2 only
(C)
Both 1 and 2
(D)
Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: BRICS is an acronym for the grouping of the world’s leading emerging economies, namely Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa.

84.
Consider the following statements: 1. The sugar industry is the second largest agro-based industry in India after cotton. 2. India is the world's top Producer, User, and Second-largest Exporter of sugar. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A)
1 only
(B)
2 only
(C)
Both 1 and 2
(D)
Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Sugar industry is an important agro-based industry that impacts the rural livelihood of about 50 million sugarcane farmers and around 5 lakh workers directly employed in sugar mills. The sugar industry is the second largest agro-based industry in India after cotton. Statement 2 is correct: India is the world's top Producer, User, and Second-largest Exporter of sugar. According to the Indian Sugar Mills Association (ISMA), the sugar production of India rose by 3.69% to 12.07 million tonnes during the October-December quarter of 2022.

85.
Which of the following is also referred to as ‘White Gold’?
(A)
Milk
(B)
Lithium
(C)
Titanium
(D)
Steel

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: Lithium (Li), sometimes also referred to as ‘White gold’ due to its high demand for rechargeable batteries, is a soft and silvery-white metal.

86.
According to the Export data released by GoI for FY23 released in June 2023, which state has become India’s leading exporter of Electronic goods in FY23 with the export worth USD 5.37 billion?
(A)
Tamil Nadu
(B)
Karnataka
(C)
Uttar Pradesh
(D)
Bihar

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: According to the Export data released by the government of India for FY23 (financial year ended in March 2023), Tamil Nadu (TN) becomes India’s leading exporter of Electronic goods in FY23, with exports reaching USD5.37 billion (bn), nearly triple the export of FY22 (USD 1.86 bn).

87.
Which company has recently (in June ‘23) partnered with Shriram Finance to increase digital Financial Services?
(A)
PhonePe
(B)
BharatPe
(C)
Paytm
(D)
Freecharge

Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation: Paytm announced a strategic partnership with Shriram Finance, a non-banking finance company (NBFC) of the Chennai (Tamil Nadu)-based Shriram group, to extend financial services to its users, including loan products. Under this partnership, Shriram Finance products will be made available on Paytm’s platform digitally.

88.
India's external debt increased from US$ 619.1 billion to _______ at the end of March 2023.
(A)
$632.8 billion
(B)
$639.8 billion
(C)
$682.8 billion
(D)
$624.7 billion

Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation: According to the data released by the RBI on 30 June, India's external debt rose marginally to USD 624.7 billion at the end of March 2023, although the debt-to-GDP ratio declined.

89.
In which city was India’s first ‘Police Drone Unit’ launched on June 29?
(A)
Chennai
(B)
Jaipur
(C)
Bangalore
(D)
Mumbai

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: India’s first ‘Police Drone Unit’ launched in Chennai.

90.
How many animal species have been added 2022 to the faunal database of India?
(A)
670
(B)
664
(C)
680
(D)
668

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: In 2022, India added 664 animal species to its faunal database.

91.
Which company has become India’s national cricket team lead sponsor?
(A)
Dream 11
(B)
Paytm
(C)
CRED
(D)
Meesho

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: Dream 11 becomes India’s national cricket team lead sponsor for three years.

92.
Who among the following has taken oath as the second Deputy Chief Minister of Maharashtra?
(A)
Ajit Pawar
(B)
Supriya Sule
(C)
Jitendra Awhad
(D)
Sharad Pawar

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: Ajit Pawar takes oath as Maharashtra Deputy Chief Minister.

93.
On 01 July 2023, Union Minister Bhupender Yadav inaugurated a three-day celebration program for the ______ Zoological Survey of India Day.
(A)
108
(B)
107
(C)
106
(D)
105

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: Union Minister Bhupender Yadav inaugurated a three-day celebration program for the 108th ZSI Day.

94.
Recently, which of the following country has launched a ‘digital nomad strategy’ for foreign workers?
(A)
Canada
(B)
Japan
(C)
Ukraine
(D)
France

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: Canada launched the "digital nomad strategy" which will make temporary arrangements for foreigners looking for jobs.

95.
Which of the following statements is correct? 1. Chartered Accountants Day is celebrated every year on 1 July. 2. The 6th Goods and Services Tax (GST) Day was observed on 1st July 2023. Select the correct code:
(A)
1 only
(B)
2 only
(C)
1 and 2
(D)
None of the above

Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation: Chartered Accountants Day is celebrated every year on 1 July to mark the foundation of the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI).

96.
Which Indian pair has won the gold medal at the Asian Mixed Doubles Squash Tournament?
(A)
Anahat Singh and Dipika Pallikal Singh
(B)
Dipika Pallikal and Harinderpal Singh Sandhu
(C)
Saurav Ghosal and Joshna Chinappa
(D)
Ramit Tandon and Dipika Pallikal Singh

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: Dipika Pallikal and Harinderpal Singh Sandhu won the gold medal at the Asian Mixed Doubles Squash Tournament in Hangzhou, China.

97.
Which of the following ministry organized the Regional Symposium on Child Protection, Safety, and Child?
(A)
Ministry of Women and Child Development
(B)
Ministry of Education
(C)
Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports
(D)
Ministry of Home Affairs

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: Protection, Safety, and Child Welfare were organized by the Ministry of Women and Child Development (MWCD).

98.
Which country is ranked first in FIFA’s latest world rankings?
(A)
Argentina
(B)
France
(C)
Brazil
(D)
England

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: World Cup 2022 winners Argentina is the top-ranked team with 1843.73 points followed by France and Brazil.

99.
National Chartered Accountants Day, also known as CA Day, is observed on July 1. Which organization is responsible for issuing accounting standards guidelines in India?
(A)
Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
(B)
National Financial Reporting Authority (NFRA)
(C)
Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI)
(D)
Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA)

Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI) is responsible for issuing accounting standards guidelines that need to be followed by accounting and finance organizations in India.

100.
Which rank did the Indian men’s national football team achieve in FIFA’s latest world rankings?
(A)
100th
(B)
99th
(C)
90th
(D)
80th

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: The Indian men’s national football team climbed to the 100th rank in FIFA’s latest world rankings.

101.
Joha rice, which was seen in the news, is from which state/UT?
(A)
Assam
(B)
West Bengal
(C)
Odisha
(D)
Bihar

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: Scientists at the Institute of Advanced Study in Science and Technology conducted research on the nutraceutical properties of Joha rice, an aromatic rice grown in the Northeastern region of India, especially Assam.

102.
Which Union Ministry announced changes in UAV Export Policy to make it simpler and liberalized?
(A)
Ministry of Commerce and Industry
(B)
Ministry of MSME
(C)
Ministry of Home Affairs
(D)
Ministry of External Affairs

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: The Ministry of Commerce and Industry’s Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT) has made the export policy for civilian drones/UAVs from India simpler and more liberalized, aligning with the focus of India’s Foreign Trade Policy 2023.

103.
Archaeologists have unearthed a 4,000-year-old sanctuary in which country?
(A)
China
(B)
Japan
(C)
Greece
(D)
Netherlands

Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation: Archaeologists have unearthed a 4,000-year-old sanctuary in the central Netherlands, composed of ditches and burial mounds, believed to have had a similar purpose to Stonehenge.

104.
Heliopolis Memorial, which was seen in the news, is located in which country?
(A)
Germany
(B)
USA
(C)
Egypt
(D)
Japan

Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation: Prime Minister Narendra Modi visited the Heliopolis War Cemetery in Cairo, Egypt, to honor the memory of around 4,000 Indian soldiers who fought in World War 1 in Egypt and Palestine.

105.
Which country leads the ‘Minerals Security Partnership (MSP)’?
(A)
USA
(B)
India
(C)
Germany
(D)
Italy

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: The establishment of the Minerals Security Partnership (MSP), led by the United States, aims to fast-track the global development of resilient and eco-friendly supply chains for crucial energy minerals.

106.
What action did the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) take regarding Mahalaxmi Cooperative Bank Ltd?
(A)
Revoked its license to operate in Karnataka
(B)
Granted a non-banking institution license
(C)
Cancelled its banking permit
(D)
Provided additional capital investment

Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation: The RBI announced the cancellation of Mahalaxmi Cooperative Bank Ltd’s banking permit while granting it a non-banking institution license.

107.
What is the purpose of Visa’s acquisition of Pismo?
(A)
To expand its presence in Latin America
(B)
To enhance its payment processing capabilities
(C)
To enter the Brazilian fintech market
(D)
To acquire Pismo’s management team

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: The acquisition of Pismo by Visa aims to increase Visa’s footprint in the region and strengthen its position in the Latin American fintech market.

108.
Which ministry is responsible for the development of the National Maritime Heritage Complex?
(A)
Ministry of Tourism
(B)
Ministry of Ports, Shipping, and Waterways
(C)
Ministry of Culture
(D)
Ministry of Heritage

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: Ministry of Ports, Shipping, and Waterways. The development of the NMHC falls under their purview. The NMHC is being developed as a world-class facility to highlight India’s maritime history from ancient to modern times.

109.
Which of the following is NOT a feature of the National Maritime Heritage Complex?
(A)
India’s Tallest Naval Museum
(B)
World’s Largest Open Aquatic Gallery
(C)
World’s Highest Lighthouse Museum
(D)
Four Theme Parks

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: The NMHC includes the world’s highest lighthouse museum, the world’s largest open aquatic gallery, four theme parks, and fourteen galleries highlighting maritime heritage.

110.
What is the interest rate offered under the Mahila Samman Savings Certificate, 2023 scheme?
(A)
7.5% per annum compounded quarterly
(B)
5.5% per annum compounded quarterly
(C)
6.7% per annum compounded annually
(D)
9.0% per annum compounded monthly

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: The deposits made under the scheme will bear interest at the rate of 7.5% per annum, which will be compounded quarterly, resulting in an effective interest rate of approximately 7.7%.

111.
What is the maximum limit for the deposit in the Mahila Samman Savings Certificate, 2023 scheme?
(A)
2,00,000
(B)
1,50,000
(C)
1,00,000
(D)
3,00,000

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: The maximum limit for the deposit in the Mahila Samman Savings Certificate, 2023 scheme is two lakh rupees.

112.
What is the interest rate for the girl child savings scheme, Sukanya Samriddhi, for the July-September 2023 period?
(A)
7.5%
(B)
7.1%
(C)
8%
(D)
8.1%

Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation: The interest rate for the girl child savings scheme, Sukanya Samriddhi, stands at the existing level of 8% for the July-September 2023 period.

113.
What is the new interest rate for a five-year recurring deposit (RD) for the July-September 2023 quarter?
(A)
6.5%
(B)
6.2%
(C)
6.8%
(D)
7.2%

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: The new interest rate for a five-year RD for the July-September 2023 quarter is 6.5%, which increased from the previous rate of 6.2%.

114.
What is the maximum percentage of the eligible balance that an account holder can withdraw during the Mahila Samman Savings Certificate, 2023 scheme tenor?
(A)
20%
(B)
40%
(C)
30%
(D)
50%

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: Account holders are eligible to withdraw a maximum of up to 40% of the eligible balance in their scheme account during the tenor of the Mahila Samman Savings Certificate, 2023 scheme.

115.
Which place is known for its stone craft using the ‘Pyro Flight Stone’?
(A)
Mahoba
(B)
Baghpat
(C)
Kalpi
(D)
Mainpuri

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: Mahoba is known for its stone craft using the ‘Pyro Flight Stone,’ a soft and radiant white-colored stone found in the region. The craft is known as Mahoba Gaura Patthar Hastashlip.

116.
According to the European Council's conclusions on China, what is the EU’s approach towards China?
(A)
Partner
(B)
Partner
(C)
Competitor
(D)
All of the above

Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation: In the European Council’s summit held on 30th June 2023, EU leaders reaffirmed their commitment to reducing the bloc’s dependence on China while exploring ways to strike a balance between cooperation and “de-risking” in various domains, particularly in light of climate change concerns. The European Council recognizes China as a partner, competitor, and systemic rival.

117.
What is the revised threshold for triggering Tax Collected at Source (TCS) on remittances under the Liberalised Remittance Scheme (LRS)?
(A)
Rs 7 lakhs
(B)
Rs 8 lakhs
(C)
Rs 10 lakhs
(D)
No threshold for triggering TCS

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: The threshold for triggering Tax Collected at Source (TCS) on remittances under the Liberalised Remittance Scheme (LRS) remains at Rs 7 lakhs. Remittances below this threshold will not be subject to the increased TCS rate.

118.
Which rank did the Indian men’s national football team achieve in FIFA’s latest world rankings?
(A)
100th
(B)
94th
(C)
99th
(D)
96th

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: The Indian men’s national football team climbed to the 100th rank in FIFA’s latest world rankings.

119.
National Chartered Accountants Day, also known as CA Day, is observed on July 1. Which organization is responsible for issuing accounting standards guidelines in India?
(A)
Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI)
(B)
National Financial Reporting Authority (NFRA)
(C)
Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
(D)
Reserve Bank of India (RBI)

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI) is responsible for issuing accounting standards guidelines that need to be followed by accounting and finance organizations in India.

120.
Which country is ranked first in FIFA’s latest world rankings?
(A)
England
(B)
Brazil
(C)
France
(D)
Argentina

Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation: World Cup 2022 winners Argentina is the top-ranked team with 1843.73 points followed by France and Brazil.

121.
Who has been appointed as the Special Director in the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)?
(A)
Ajay Bhatnagar
(B)
Sharad Agarwal
(C)
Manoj Sashidhar
(D)
None of the above

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: Ajay Bhatnagar (IPS) has been appointed as the Special Director in the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) according to a DoPT order. He is a 1989-batch IPS officer of Jharkhand cadre.

122.
What was the total number of Aadhaar-based face authentication transactions recorded in May 2023?
(A)
14 million
(B)
15.86 million
(C)
10.6 million
(D)
14.86 million

Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation: Total number of Aadhaar-based face authentication transactions reached an all-time high of 10.6 million in May.

123.
International Asteroid Day is annually commemorated on
(A)
February 15th
(B)
June 30th
(C)
January 1st
(D)
December 31st

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: International Asteroid Day is observed on June 30th each year to commemorate the Tunguska impact that occurred in Siberia, Russia, on June 30, 1908.

124.
Every year, June 30th marks the celebration of the International Day of Parliamentarism, a day dedicated to commemorating the formation of the Inter-Parliamentary Union (IPU). What is the theme for this year’s International Day of Parliamentarism?
(A)
Parliaments for the Planet
(B)
Parliaments for Inclusivity
(C)
Parliaments for Transparency
(D)
Parliaments for Peace

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: The theme for this year’s International Day of Parliamentarism is ‘Parliaments for the Planet.’ The Inter-Parliamentary Union (IPU) has launched the campaign ‘Parliaments for the Planet’ to emphasize the role of parliaments in addressing climate change.

125.
Which department in India is responsible for the Geographical Indication Registry?
(A)
Department of Commerce
(B)
Department of Industry Promotion and Internal Trade
(C)
Ministry of Handicrafts
(D)
Department of Handicrafts

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Geographical Indication Registry in Chennai, Tamil Nadu is under the Department of Industry Promotion and Internal Trade (DIPIT) of the Ministry of Commerce and Industry (MoCI).

126.
The government of India named 'Amrit Kaal’ as ____ on 4 June.
(A)
‘Kartavya Kaal'
(B)
'Anushaasan Kaal'
(C)
'Karma Kaal'
(D)
'Nirmaan kaal'

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: On 4 June, the government named 'Amrit Kaal’ as ‘Kartavya Kaal'.

127.
Indian Coast Guard & Indian Navy signed an MoU with _______ for developing a gallery at National Maritime Heritage Complex.
(A)
Indian Railway Catering and Tourism Corporation
(B)
Indian Port Rail & Ropeway Corporation Ltd
(C)
Indian Railway Finance Corporation
(D)
Central Organisation for Railway Electrification

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: Indian Coast Guard & Indian Navy has signed an MoU with Indian Port Rail & Ropeway Corporation Ltd in Gandhinagar.

128.
India’s share in global commercial services exports has increased from 2% in 2005 to ___________ in 2022.
(A)
4.9%
(B)
4.8%
(C)
5.4%
(D)
4.4%

Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation: According to a World Bank and WTO report, India’s share in global commercial services exports has increased from 2% in 2005 to 4.4% in 2022.

129.
Who has been appointed as the Chief Financial Officer (CFO) of SBI?
(A)
Kameshwar Rao Kodavanti
(B)
PM Prasad
(C)
Prashant Kumar
(D)
Sumant Kathpalia

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: Kameshwar Rao Kodavanti has been appointed Chief Financial Officer (CFO) of SBI.

130.
Which of the following was the hottest day recorded at the global level according to data from the U.S. National Centers for Environmental Prediction?
(A)
1st July
(B)
2nd July
(C)
3rd July
(D)
4th July

Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation: July 3rd was the hottest day recorded at the global level according to data from the U.S. National Centers for Environmental Prediction.

131.
Where will the next meeting of the SCO Council of Heads of State be held in 2024?
(A)
Russia
(B)
Kyrgyzstan
(C)
Pakistan
(D)
Kazakhstan

Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation: Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) Heads of State adopted New Delhi Declaration.

132.
A campaign has been launched by the government to transform 75_______________into Tourism Spots.
(A)
Bus Stands
(B)
Lighthouses
(C)
Beaches
(D)
None of the above

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: A campaign has been launched by the government to transform 75 Lighthouses into Tourism Spots.

133.
Who has been appointed as the National Cybersecurity Coordinator?
(A)
Lt Gen Atul Kumar Goel
(B)
Lt Gen M U Nair
(C)
Lt Gen Atanu Kumar Das
(D)
Lt Gen Abhishek Singh

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: The government has appointed Lt Gen M U Nair as the new National Cybersecurity Coordinator (NCSC).

134.
Which of the following statements is correct about the 2023 Bird Census of Bihar? 1. 250 species of birds have been found in the Bird Census of Bihar. 2. This year’s bird census was conducted in 26 districts of the state, covering 76 wetlands and three river systems. Select the correct code:
(A)
1 only
(B)
2 only
(C)
1 and 2
(D)
None of the above

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: 205 species of birds have been found in the latest Bird Census of Bihar.

135.
Who has recently honored Rajindhar Singh Dhatt with a Points of Light honor?
(A)
British PM Rishi Sunak
(B)
Australian PM Anthony Albanese
(C)
Japanese PM Fumio Kishida
(D)
Canadian PM Justin Trudeau

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: Rajinder Singh Dhatt has been honored by British PM Rishi Sunak with a Points of Light honor.

136.
Consider the following statements with reference to the SWAMIH fund- Statement-I: SWAMIH is a Category-II AIF (Alternate Investment Fund) debt fund registered with SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of India). Statement-II: The Fund is sponsored by the Ministry of Finance. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(A)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(B)
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(C)
Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
(D)
Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: Recently the Prime Minister congratulated new homeowners in Bengaluru’s first project under SWAMIH Fund which has helped more than 3000 families in owning their dream homes. SWAMIH Investment Fund is a government-backed fund, set up as a Category-II AIF (Alternate Investment Fund) debt fund registered with SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of India). It was launched in 2019 as a social impact fund specifically formed for completing stressed and stalled residential projects. The Fund is sponsored by the Ministry of Finance and is managed by SBICAP Ventures Ltd. (a State Bank Group company).

137.
Consider the following statements with reference to James Webb Space Telescope (JWST). 1. The methyl cation has been detected in space for the first time by the James Webb Space Telescope (JWST). 2. The James Webb Space Telescope is developed by NASA with the assistance of the European Space Agency (ESA) and the Canadian Space Agency. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
(A)
1 only
(B)
2 only
(C)
Both 1 and 2
(D)
Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation: The CH3+ molecule, which is also known as methyl cation, has been detected in space for the first time by the James Webb Space Telescope (JWST). It was detected in the star and protoplanetary disc system located about 1,350 light-years away in the Orion Nebula which is 1,350 light years from Earth.

138.
Which of the following is/are members of the ‘ South Asia Regional Anti-Doping Organization’? 1. Bangladesh 2. Bhutan 3. Maldives 4. Nepal 5. Sri Lanka Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(A)
1 and 2 only
(B)
2, 3, and 4 only
(C)
1, 3, and 4 only
(D)
1, 2, 3, 4, 5

Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation: Recently, the National Anti-Doping Agency, India signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with South Asia Regional Anti-Doping Organization. South Asia Regional Anti-Doping Organization was formed in 2007 in the South Asian Anti-Doping Program Project Development Meeting held in Maldives.

139.
With reference to ‘Shanghai Cooperation Organisation(SCO), consider the following statements: 1. India became a full Member State of SCO at the Astana Summit in 2017. 2. The theme of India’s Presidency of SCO is ‘SECURE’ . Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A)
1 only
(B)
2 only
(C)
Both 1 and 2
(D)
Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation: The eight-member SCO was formed in 2001 by China and Russia with former Soviet central Asian states as members as a political and security group that seeks to counter Western influence in Eurasia. India’s association with the SCO began in 2005 as an Observer country. India became a full Member State of SCO at the Astana Summit in 2017

140.
Which of the following statements is/are correct about ‘Features of the Anti-Defection Law’? 1. A member is not disqualified if he has taken prior permission of his party, or if the voting or abstention is condoned by the party within 15 days. 2. Independent members will be disqualified if they join a political party after getting elected to the House. 3. Nominated members will be disqualified if they join any political party six months after getting nominated. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(A)
Only one
(B)
Only two
(C)
All three
(D)
None of the above

Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation: Article 102 of the Constitution of India lays down the grounds under which a legislator may be disqualified from being a member of the house.

141.
Consider the following statements 1. India spends nearly 2% of its Gross Domestic Production (GDP) on research and development. 2. Women's participation in scientific research in India is lower than the global average. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A)
1 only
(B)
2 only
(C)
Both 1 and 2
(D)
Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct: India’s expenditure on research as a proportion of GDP is to about 0.65 per cent now and for the last decade or so, this share has remained almost stagnant.

142.
Which of the following countries are members of the Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO) 1. India 2. China 3. Tajikistan 4. Turkmenistan 5. Russia Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(A)
1, 4, and 5 only
(B)
1, 2 ,3, and 5 only
(C)
2 and 3 only
(D)
1, 2,3 ,4 and 5 only

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO) is an intergovernmental organization founded in Shanghai on 15 June 2001.

143.
Arranging the following crude countries in ascending order to crude oil supply to India 1. Russia 2. Saudi Arabia 3. Iraq 4. UAE Select the correct answer using the code given below
(A)
3-2-1-4
(B)
1-3-2-4
(C)
1-2-4-3
(D)
2-1-4-3

Correct Answer: (B)

144.
National green tribunal (NGT) deals with which of the following laws 1. The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974 2. The Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980 3. Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 4. The Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991; Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A)
1, 2 and 4 only
(B)
1 and 3 only
(C)
2, 3 and 4 only
(D)
2 and 4 only

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: National Green Tribunal is a statutory body established by a Government Notification using the powers of Section 3 of the NGT Act 2010.

145.
On the occasion of its 68th foundation day, the State Bank of India (SBI) has inaugurated 34 Transaction Banking Hubs across 21 district centres in the country. How will the Transaction Banking Hubs of State Bank of India assist business customers?
(A)
By offering insurance services
(B)
By providing specialized investment advice
(C)
By offering attractive concessions on savings accounts
(D)
By connecting them with subsidiary companies

Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation: The Transaction Banking Hubs will leverage the ‘Power of One’ within the SBI Group to enable seamless connectivity with different business verticals and subsidiary companies.

146.
India’s first domestically built 700 MW nuclear reactor recently started commercial operations at the Kakrapar Atomic Power Project in Gujarat. How much power capacity is the first indigenous 700 MWe Unit, KAPP-3, currently operating at?
(A)
90%
(B)
80%
(C)
70%
(D)
100%

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: The KAPP-3 reactor at the Kakrapar Atomic Power Project is currently operating at 90% of its total power capacity.

147.
How many 700 MW pressurized heavy water reactors (PHWRs) does the Nuclear Power Corporation of India Limited (NPCIL) plan to build across the country?
(A)
Eight
(B)
Tem
(C)
Sixteen
(D)
Twenty

Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation: NPCIL has plans to build sixteen 700 MW PHWRs across India, indicating a significant expansion of nuclear power infrastructure.

148.
IDFC First Bank and IDFC Ltd have announced their merger plans, with a share exchange ratio of 155 equity shares of IDFC First Bank for every 100 equity shares of IDFC. What percentage of shareholding does IDFC Limited hold in IDFC First Bank as of June 30, 2023?
(A)
39.93%
(B)
30.89%
(C)
42.75%
(D)
26.42%

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: As of June 30, 2023, IDFC Limited, through its non-financial holding company, holds a 39.93% shareholding in IDFC First Bank.

149.
Who will serve as the regulatory body for all trading activities within India’s carbon market?
(A)
Ministry of Power
(B)
Central Electricity Regulatory Commission (CERC)
(C)
Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE)
(D)
Grid-India

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: The CERC will act as the regulatory body responsible for overseeing all trading activities within the Indian carbon market, ensuring compliance and enforcing regulations.

150.
Which organization will serve as the registry for the carbon market in India?
(A)
Ministry of Power
(B)
Central Electricity Regulatory Commission (CERC)
(C)
Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE)
(D)
Grid-India

Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation: Grid-India will function as the registry for the carbon market, maintaining records of carbon credits, transactions, and participant information to ensure transparency and accountability.

151.
Consider the following statements: 1. Bharat 5G Alliance launched to promote innovation and collaboration in next-generation wireless technology. 2. The Bharat 5G Alliance has been launched by the Department of Telecommunications. Select the correct code:
(A)
1 only
(B)
2 only
(C)
Both 1 and 2
(D)
Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation: Bharat 6G Alliance launched to promote innovation and collaboration in next-generation wireless technology.

152.
On 3 July, a portal was launched by the Election Commission of India for parties to file ___________.
(A)
Complaint
(B)
Financial statements
(C)
Candidate nominations
(D)
Symbols allocation

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: A portal has been launched by the Election Commission of India for parties to file financial statements.

153.
UN Security Council to hold a first-ever meeting on threats of AI. It will be organized by which country?
(A)
India
(B)
USA
(C)
China
(D)
United Kingdom

Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation: The meeting will be organized by the United Kingdom.

154.
Who has been appointed as the Chairman of Team India's senior selection committee?
(A)
Ajit Agarkar
(B)
Sachin Tendulkar
(C)
Salil Ankola
(D)
Ravi Shastri

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: The Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI) has appointed Ajit Agarkar as chairman of the Senior Men’s Selection Committee.

155.
Which of the following statements regarding MoU signed between DGCA and EASA is/are correct? 1. The MoU will facilitate collaboration on unmanned aircraft and innovative air mobility between the Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) and the European Union Aviation Safety Agency (EASA). 2. The MoU will also focus on information sharing between the DGCA and EASA on technological developments and research. Select the correct answer using the following codes:
(A)
1 only
(B)
2 only
(C)
Both 1 and 2
(D)
Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation: DGCA and EASA have signed an MoU for cooperation in Unmanned Aircraft Systems and Innovative Air Mobility.

156.
Ministry of Home Affairs has launched a Scheme for the Expansion and Modernization of Fire Services in the States with a total outlay of _________.
(A)
Rs. 5,000 Crore
(B)
Rs. 1,000 Crore
(C)
Rs. 10,000 Crore
(D)
Rs. 50,000 Crore

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: Ministry of Home Affairs has launched a Scheme for Expansion and Modernization of Fire Services in the States.

157.
Which of the following statements is correct about the Digital Personal Data Protection Bill? 1. The Bill proposes to levy a penalty of up to ₹350 crore on entities for every instance of violation of norms. 2. All online and offline data in India will come under its legal domain. Select the correct code:
(A)
1 only
(B)
2 only
(C)
1 and 2
(D)
None of the above

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Union Cabinet approved the Digital Personal Data Protection Bill, 2023 on 5 July.

158.
UGC made _______optional for recruitment to the post of Assistant Professor in Higher institutions.
(A)
PhD
(B)
NET
(C)
UPSC
(D)
SET

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: UGC relaxed criteria for the appointment of teachers in colleges and universities. The University Grants Commission (UGC) rolled back its decision to make Ph.D. mandatory for assistant professors in higher education institutions.

159.
Who has been named AIFF Men's Footballer of the Year?
(A)
Akash Mishra
(B)
Lallianzuala Chhangte
(C)
Nandkumar Sekar
(D)
Naorem Mahesh Singh

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: Lallianzuala Chhangte won the 2022-23 AIFF Men's Footballer of the Year award.

160.
Which of the following statements is correct regarding Chandrayaan-3? 1. Chandrayaan-3 will consist of a lander, rover, and orbiter. 2. The name of Lander is ‘Vikram’ while the rover is named ‘Pragyan’. Select the correct code:
(A)
1 only
(B)
2 only
(C)
1 and 2
(D)
None of the above

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: ISRO has attached the Chandrayaan-3 spacecraft with the rocket LVM3.

161.
With reference to the Gravitational Waves, consider the following statements: 1. These are ripples or disturbances in the fabric of spacetime caused by the acceleration or movement of massive objects. 2. They require a physical medium for transmission. 3. Gravitational waves have a much lower frequency range compared to electromagnetic waves. Which of the statements given above is correct?
(A)
1 and 2 only
(B)
2 and 3 only
(C)
1 and 3 only
(D)
1,2 & 3

Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation: Gravitational Waves are ripples or disturbances in the fabric of spacetime caused by the acceleration or movement of massive objects. They have a much lower frequency range compared to electromagnetic waves. Gravitational waves are different from other types of waves, such as electromagnetic waves, because gravitational waves do not require a medium to propagate. They can travel through empty space without being significantly affected or diminished.

162.
Consider the following statements: 1. Disaster risk financing involves managing the financial risks associated with financing development projects in regions that are prone to natural disasters and adverse climate events. 2. Economic Enhancement is one of the strategic priorities of the Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI). Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A)
1 only
(B)
2 only
(C)
Both 1 and 2
(D)
Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation: Disaster risk financing is about reducing the risk of disasters by investing ahead of time so that when hazards occur, the impact of the disaster is minimal, and recovery can be made easily. The following are CDRI’s strategic priorities: Technical Support and Capacity-building, Research and Knowledge Management, Advocacy and Partnerships.

163.
Consider the following statements with reference to Indus Valley Civilization 1. Lothal, one of the sites of the Indus Valley civilization, is located in Fatehabad district of Haryana. 2. It was discovered by the archaeologist N G Majumdar. 3. Rice husk has been discovered at Lothal. How many of the above statements are correct?
(A)
Only one
(B)
Only two
(C)
All three
(D)
None

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: Lothal, one of the sites of the Indus Valley civilization, is located in the Bhāl region of the state of Gujarat. It was one of the southernmost sites of the Indus Valley civilization. It was a port town of IVC. It was discovered by the archaeologist S R Rao. Rice husk has been discovered at Lothal.

164.
With reference to the Industrial Park Rating System (IPRS) consider the following statements: 1. It rates the country’s industrial parks and special economic zones. 2. It is an extension of the India Industrial Land Bank (IILB) platform. 3. It rates industrial parks across four pillars. Which of the statements given above is correct?
(A)
1 and 2 only
(B)
2 and 3 only
(C)
1 and 3 only
(D)
1,2 & 3 only

Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation: IPRS rates the country’s industrial parks and special economic zones. It is an extension of the India Industrial Land Bank (IILB) platform. It rates industrial parks across four pillars: internal infrastructure and utilities, external infrastructure and facilities, business support services, and environmental and safety management.

165.
Consider the following statements: 1. Crop residue can be converted into renewable energy sources, such as biofuels, or used directly for heat and electricity generation. 2. Incorporating crop residues into the soil elevates soil temperature, causing the death of beneficial soil organisms. 3. Crops like cotton, sugarcane, and tobacco do not generate crop residues. How many of the above statements are correct?
(A)
Only one
(B)
Only two
(C)
All three
(D)
None

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: Crop residue can be converted into renewable energy sources, such as biofuels, biogas, or used directly for heat and electricity generation. Incorporating crop residues into the soil can provide several benefits for soil health. Residues help improve soil organic matter content, enhance soil structure and water-holding capacity, and promote nutrient cycling. However, burning crop residue generates heat which can elevate soil temperature, causing the death of beneficial soil organisms. Crops like cotton, sugarcane, and tobacco also generate crop residues.

166.
Consider the following statements, with respect to National Green Tribunal (NGT) 1. It is a statutory body that is set up for the effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests 2. The Tribunal is not bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 but guided by principles of natural justice. 3. It has the power to give relief and compensation for damages to persons and property Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A)
1 and 2 only
(B)
2 only
(C)
1 and 3 only
(D)
1, 2 & 3 only

Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: National Green Tribunal is a statutory body that was established on 18.10.2010 under the National Green Tribunal Act 2010 for effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests and other natural resources. Statement 2 is correct: The Tribunal shall not be bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, but shall be guided by principles of natural justice. Statement 3 is correct: NGT is empowered to enforcement of any legal right relating to the environment and give relief and compensation for damages to persons and property and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto

167.
Consider the following statements, with respect to the Chandrayaan-3 mission 1.It is a follow-on mission to Chandrayaan-2 to demonstrate end-to-end capability in safe landing and roving on the lunar surface 2. It consists of an indigenous Lander module (LM), a Propulsion module (PM), and a Rover 3. It will be launched by Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV-XL) Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A)
1 and 2 only
(B)
2 and 3 only
(C)
1 and 3 only
(D)
1, 2 & 3 only

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: Chandrayaan-3 is a follow-on mission to Chandrayaan-2 to demonstrate end-to-end capability in safe landing and roving on the lunar surface. It consists of Lander and Rover configurations.

168.
What is/are the provision(s) to safeguard the autonomy of the Supreme Court of India? 1. While appointing the Supreme Court Judges, the President of India has to consult the Chief Justice of India. 2. The Supreme Court Judges can be removed by the Chief Justice of India only. 3. The salaries of the Judges are charged to the Consolidated Fund of India to which the legislature does not have to vote. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A)
1 and 2 only
(B)
2 and 3 only
(C)
3 only
(D)
1 & 3 only

Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation: “Every Judge of the Supreme Court shall be appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal after consultation with such of the Judges of the Supreme Court and of the High Courts in the States as the President may deem Provided that in the case of appointment of a Judge other than the chief Justice, the chief Justice of India shall always be consulted”

169.
Consider the following statements 1. Gravitational waves were first detected by Laser Interferometry Gravitational-wave Observatory (LIGO) 2. Currently, Laser Interferometry Gravitational-wave Observatory detectors have the capability to detect a few kilohertz and nanohertz waves 3. Laser Interferometer Gravitational-Wave Observatory (LIGO), India is going to set up in the Theni district at the Bodi West Hills, Tamandu Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A)
1 and 2 only
(B)
1 only
(C)
2 and 3 only
(D)
1, 2 & 3

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: The first detection of gravitational waves was announced on February 11, 2016 which was detected by LIGO (Laser Interferometry Gravitational-wave Observatory), its detectors have observed dozens of short high-frequency gravitational wave bursts.

170.
Which of the following are the objectives of the Chandrayaan-3 Mission 1. To demonstrate a Safe and Soft Landing on Lunar Surface 2. To demonstrate Rover roving on the moon and 3. To conduct in-situ scientific experiments Which of the statements given above is correct?
(A)
1 and 2 only
(B)
2 and 3 only
(C)
1 and 3 only
(D)
1, 2 & 3

Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation: Recently, Indian Space Research Organisation (Isro) announced that it had successfully integrated the Chandrayaan-3 spacecraft with the launch vehicle, Launch Vehicle Mark-III (LVM3), at the Satish Dhawan Space Centre in Andhra Pradesh’s Sriharikota.

171.
What is the objective of the Swarnima Scheme for Women?
(A)
To offer term loans to women entrepreneurs at a high-interest rate.
(B)
To empower women entrepreneurs from backward classes through social and financial security.
(C)
To provide financial assistance to men entrepreneurs from backward classes.
(D)
None of the above

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Swarnima Scheme aims to provide social and financial security to women entrepreneurs from backward classes.

172.
The Startup20 Shikhar Summit, organized by the Startup20 Engagement Group under the India G20 Presidency, has commenced in Gurugram, marking a significant achievement in the global startup ecosystem. What is the primary objective of the Startup20 Shikhar Summit?
(A)
Job creation
(B)
Economic prosperity
(C)
Sustainable development
(D)
All of the above

Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation: The summit aims to unlock the potential of startups to drive job creation, economic prosperity, and sustainable development. By fostering an enabling environment, it aims to propel the growth and impact of startups in these areas.

173.
Which Indian state is home to the Sai Hira Global Convention Centre, inaugurated by Prime Minister Narendra Modi?
(A)
Tamil Nadu
(B)
Kerala
(C)
Andhra Pradesh
(D)
Karnataka

Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Sai Hira Global Convention Centre is located in Puttaparthi, Andhra Pradesh, and was virtually inaugurated by Prime Minister Narendra Modi.

174.
Who implements the Swarnima Scheme?
(A)
Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
(B)
Ministry of Women and Child Development
(C)
Ministry of Finance
(D)
None of the above

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: The Swarnima Scheme is implemented by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.

175.
Which country has witnessed a doubling of its share of global commercial services exports from 2% in 2005 to 4.4% in 2022?
(A)
India
(B)
China
(C)
Türkiye
(D)
Philippines

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: The report by the World Bank and WTO states that India has doubled its share of global commercial services exports to 4.4% in 2022 from 2% in 2005.

176.
A ____ member working group has been constituted by the Indian Banks’ Association (IBA) for implementing the recommendations of the Reserve Bank of India’s committee on the “working of the Asset Reconstruction Companies (ARCs)”.
(A)
Three
(B)
Four
(C)
Five
(D)
Six

Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation: A five-member working group has been constituted by the Indian Banks’ Association (IBA).

177.
Tamim Iqbal is the player of which country?
(A)
Afghanistan
(B)
Bangladesh
(C)
UAE
(D)
Pakistan

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: ODI Skipper of Bangladesh, Tamim Iqbal, announced his retirement from international cricket.

178.
Services PMI growth declined to a three-month low of ________.
(A)
58.5
(B)
68.5
(C)
48.5
(D)
38.5

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: India’s services sector’s Purchasing Managers’ Index (PMI) declined to 58.5 from 61.2 in May 2023

179.
Who has been appointed as the new executive director of RBI?
(A)
P Vasudevan
(B)
Anup Bagchi
(C)
Girish Chandra Chaturvedi
(D)
Sandeep Bakhshi

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: Reserve Bank of India appointed P Vasudevan as the new executive director.

180.
Recently, Defence Ministry signed a contract with Hindustan Aeronautics Limited for the procurement of _____ Dornier Aircraft for the Indian Coast Guard.
(A)
Two
(B)
Three
(C)
Four
(D)
Five

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: Defence Ministry has signed a contract with Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL).

181.
Consider the following statements regarding the recently presented budget for Karnataka for the years 2023-2024. 1. Karnataka CM Siddaramaiah presented the state budget with a total outlay of Rs 3.27 lakh crore. 2. CM announced that ₹52,000 crores had been earmarked to implement the five pre-poll guarantees of Congress. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A)
1 only
(B)
2 only
(C)
Both 1 and 2
(D)
Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation: Karnataka CM Siddaramaiah presented the state budget with a total outlay of Rs 3.27 lakh crore for 2023-24.

182.
Which state government has launched the ‘Ama Pokhari’ Yojana?
(A)
Odisha
(B)
Uttar Pradesh
(C)
Andhra Pradesh
(D)
Haryana

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: CM Naveen Patnaik launched the ‘Ama Pokhari’ Yojana.

183.
Which state government announced a monthly pension of Rs 2,750 per month for widowers and unmarried people?
(A)
Punjab
(B)
Madhya Pradesh
(C)
Himachal Pradesh
(D)
Haryana

Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation: A monthly pension of Rs 2,750 per month for low-income unmarried in the age group of 45-60 has been announced by the Haryana government.

184.
Which of the following wins the GeM award in the "Timely Payments (CPSEs)" category for 2023?
(A)
NLC India Limited
(B)
NHPC Limited
(C)
NTPC Limited
(D)
Oil and Natural Gas Corporation

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: NLC India Limited (NLCIL) bagged the GeM award in the category "Timely Payments (CPSEs)" for 2023.

185.
Major Bakhtawar Singh Brar passed away at the age of 109 in the US. He had served in which regiment of the Indian Army?
(A)
Kumaon Regiment
(B)
Bihar Regiment
(C)
Madras Regiment
(D)
Gorkha Regiment

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: He served in the Faridkot State Forces and was commissioned into the 6 Kumaon Regiment in 1945.

186.
Which of the following is/are the expected benefit of internalization of Indian rupees 1. It may reduce the need for holding foreign exchange reserves. 2. It will help in mitigating currency risk for Indian businesses in cross-border transactions. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A)
1 only
(B)
2 only
(C)
Both 1 & 2
(D)
Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The use of the rupee in cross-border transactions mitigates currency risk for Indian businesses. Protection from currency volatility not only reduces the cost of doing business,

187.
Zaporizhzhia nuclear plant which is often in the news, is located in which country
(A)
Russia
(B)
Belarus
(C)
Ukraine
(D)
North Korea

Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation: Recently, there are renewed concerns over the safety of the Zaporizhzhia nuclear plant, the largest in Europe, which was seized by Russian troops early in the war.

188.
Which of the following organization launched ‘One Health Global Leaders Group on Antimicrobial Resistance 1. World Health Organization (WHO) 2. UN Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) 3. United Nations Children Fund (UNICEF) 4. International Organization on Animal Health (OIE). Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(A)
1, 2 and 3 only
(B)
2 and 3 only
(C)
1, 2 and 4 only
(D)
1, 2, 3 and 4

Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation: World Health Organization (WHO), UN Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO), and the International Organization on Animal Health (OIE).

189.
Which of the following currencies are part of the Special drawing rights basket 1. US dollar 2. Chinese renminbi 3. Japanese yen 4. British pound sterling Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(A)
1, 2 and 3 only
(B)
1 and 2 only
(C)
3 and 4 only
(D)
1, 2, 3 and 4

Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation: The SDR is an international reserve asset. The SDR is not a currency, but its value is based on a basket of five currencies—the US dollar, the euro, the Chinese renminbi, the Japanese yen, and the British pound sterling.

190.
Consider the following statements, with respect to the Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council 1. It is a constitutional body that is responsible for making recommendations on issues related to the implementation of the Goods and Services Tax (GST) in India 2. Every decision of the GST Council shall be taken by a majority of not less than three-fourths of the weighted votes of the members present and voting 3. Chairperson of, the Central Board of Excise and Customs (CBEC), is the Ex-officio chairman of the GST Council Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
(A)
3 only
(B)
2 and 3 only
(C)
1 and 2 only
(D)
1, 2 & 3

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: As per Article 279A (1) of the amended Constitution, the GST Council has to be constituted by the President within 60 days of the commencement of Article 279A.

191.
Consider the following statements regarding Launch Vehicle Mark 3 (LVM3). 1. LVM3 is India’s heaviest rocket. 2. It is a three-stage launch vehicle with a cryogenic upper stage. 3. It does not have a fixed orbit and can go anywhere—GEO (Geosynchronous Earth Orbit), MEO (Medium Earth Orbit), LEO (Low Earth Orbit), and missions to the moon and sun. How many of the above statements are correct?
(A)
Only one
(B)
Only two
(C)
All three
(D)
None

Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) renamed the Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV) Mark -III as Launch Vehicle Mark-III, mainly to identify its task of placing satellites into a variety of orbits. The LVM3 will go everywhere —GEO (Geosynchronous Earth Orbit), MEO (Medium Earth Orbit), LEO (Low Earth Orbit), missions to the moon, sun.

192.
Consider the following statements. 1. At present, the cultivation and processing of poppy and opium in India is controlled by the provisions of The Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances (NDPS) Act and Rules. 2. There are no provisions for granting bail when an accused is booked under Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances (NDPS) Act, 1985 and Unlawful Activities Prevention Act, 1967. 3. The Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance is the NDPS Act’s nodal administrative authority. 4. The Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances (NDPS) Act adopts a reformative approach towards drug addicts. How many of the above statements are correct?
(A)
Only one
(B)
Only two
(C)
Only three
(D)
All four

Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation: After India gained independence, the cultivation and trade of opium passed on to the Indian government, with the activity being controlled by The Opium Act, 1857, The Opium Act, 1878, and The Dangerous Drugs Act, 1930. At present, the cultivation and processing of poppy and opium is controlled by the provisions of The Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances (NDPS) Act and Rules.

193.
Consider the following statements. 1. Preventing soil erosion is one of the components of Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana. 2. Soils help to regulate the earth’s climate by storing carbon. 3. Burning of crop residues can lead to soil nutrient loss. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A)
1, 2
(B)
1, 3
(C)
2, 3
(D)
1, 2, 3

Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation: Soils help to regulate the planet’s climate by storing carbon and are the second largest carbon sink after the oceans. They help maintain a landscape that is more resilient to the impacts of droughts and floods. As soil is the basis of food systems, it is no surprise that soil health is critical for healthy food production.

194.
Consider the following statements regarding postal ballots. 1. Members of the armed forces and government employees posted outside India are entitled to vote only by post. 2. Voters under preventive detention cannot vote by post. 3. President of India, Vice President, Governors, and Union Cabinet ministers have the option to vote by post. How many of the above statements are correct?
(A)
Only one
(B)
Only two
(C)
All three
(D)
None

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: Postal ballots are a restricted set of voters who can exercise postal voting. Through this facility, a voter can cast her vote remotely by recording her preference on an official ballot paper and sending it back to the election officer before counting.

195.
Consider the following statements 1. Barpukhan was a post equivalent to Governor General created in Ahom Kingdom. 2. The Battle of Saraighat was a naval battle fought between the Mughal Empire and the Ahom Kingdom on the Brahmaputra river. Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
(A)
1 only
(B)
2 only
(C)
Both 1 and 2
(D)
Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation: Barpukhan was a post equivalent to Governor General created by Ahom king Pratap Simha or Susengpha (1603-1641). The hillock by the Brahmaputra, mentioned in ancient scriptures as Mandrachal, was from where Ahom General Lachit Barpukhan launched the Battle of Saraighat in March 1671 to inflict the most crushing defeat on the Mughals. Saraighat is regarded as the “greatest naval battle ever fought in a river”.

196.
State Agriculture Minister Badal Patralekh inaugurated the Shravani Mela with traditional rituals and prayers. Which of the following is true about the Baba Baidyanathdham Temple?
(A)
It is a famous Buddhist temple
(B)
It is located in Varanasi
(C)
It is a Jain pilgrimage site
(D)
It is recognized as one of the 12 Jyotirlingas

Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation: Baba Baidyanathdham Temple, located in Deoghar, is recognized as one of the 12 Jyotirlingas, which are the most revered and sacred Shiva temples in the country.

197.
Tomato farmers in Maharashtra and Karnataka have attributed the decline in their yields earlier this year to two distinct viruses. Those in Maharashtra reported that their tomato crops were adversely affected by the cucumber mosaic virus (CMV), whereas growers in Karnataka and other South Indian states attributed their losses to the tomato mosaic virus (ToMV). Which viral family does the tomato mosaic virus (ToMV) belong to?
(A)
Virgaviridae
(B)
Cucumoviridae
(C)
Tymoviridae
(D)
Tobamoviridae

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: The tomato mosaic virus (ToMV) is a member of the Virgaviridae family, which is closely related to the tobacco mosaic virus (TMV).

198.
Which position did the Indian men’s hockey team finish in the FIH Pro League 2022-23?
(A)
First
(B)
Second
(C)
Third
(D)
Fourth

Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation: The Indian men’s hockey team finished fourth in the FIH Pro League 2022-23.

199.
The collapse of the Dutch government due to differences in migration policy has set the stage for a highly contentious election campaign in November. Who is the longest-serving leader in the Netherlands?
(A)
Mark Rutte
(B)
Sigrid Kaag
(C)
Wopke Hoekstra
(D)
Carola Schouten

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: Mark Rutte is the longest-serving leader in the Netherlands and has been in office since 2010.

200.
Which rate provides a safety valve for banks to meet unforeseen liquidity requirements by borrowing funds from the RBI against the collateral of government securities?
(A)
Reverse Repo Rate
(B)
Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR)
(C)
Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR)
(D)
Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) Rate

Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation: The MSF rate allows banks to borrow overnight funds from the RBI against the collateral of government securities in case of unforeseen liquidity requirements.

201.
India joined the Champions Group of the Global Crisis Response Group. It was formed in which year?
(A)
2022
(B)
2021
(C)
2020
(D)
2019

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: The Global Crisis Response Group (GCRG) was formed by the UN Secretary-General (UNSG) in March 2022.

202.
Which of the following statements is correct about the Performance Grading Index (PGI) 2.0 for 2021-22? 1. No states/UTs have attained the highest grade ‘Daksh’. 2. Six states/UTs attained Grade Prachesta – 3. Select the correct code:
(A)
1 only
(B)
2 only
(C)
1 and 2
(D)
None of the above

Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation: Ministry of Education released Performance Grading Index (PGI) 2.0 for 2021-22.

203.
On 7 July 2023, the Election Commission of India and the Electoral Tribunal (ET) of ______________ signed an MoU in the field of election management and administration.
(A)
Canada
(B)
France
(C)
Italy
(D)
Panama

Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation: On 7 July 2023, the Election Commission of India and the Electoral Tribunal (ET) of Panama signed an MoU in Panama City to establish the institutional framework for their ongoing cooperation in the field of election management and administration.

204.
Which IIT has developed ways to check the alertness of loco pilots?
(A)
IIT Madras
(B)
IIT Kanpur
(C)
IIT Raipur
(D)
IIT Kharagpur

Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation: IIT Kharagpur has developed ways to check the alertness of loco pilots.

205.
Who has become the first openly gay head of state in the European Union?
(A)
Edgars Rinkevics
(B)
Krisjanis Karins
(C)
Maris Kucin
(D)
Egils Levits

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: Latvia’s Edgars Rinkevics became the first openly gay head of state in the EU.

206.
Lakshya Sen got the Men’s Singles title of the Canada Open 2023 badminton tournament. He defeated Li Shi Feng of _____________.
(A)
Japan
(B)
China
(C)
North Korea
(D)
South Korea

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: Lakshya Sen gets Men’s Singles title of Canada Open 2023 badminton tournament.

207.
Which of the following institute researchers have developed a new variety of wheat named PBW RS1?
(A)
IIT Kanpur
(B)
Punjab Agricultural University
(C)
Dr Rajendra Prasad Central Agricultural University
(D)
ICAR

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: The Ludhiana-based Punjab Agricultural University, which had played a vital role during the Green Revolution, has developed a new variety of wheat.

208.
Which country has established a new Ministry of Investment to boost economic competitiveness?
(A)
Iran
(B)
UAE
(C)
Turkey
(D)
Saudi Arabia

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: UAE establish a new Ministry of Investment.

209.
India has started trade settlements in local currencies with which country?
(A)
Kenya
(B)
Tanzania
(C)
South Africa
(D)
South Sudan

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: India and Tanzania started trade settlements in local currencies.

210.
Which of the following phrase is a part of the theme of World Population Day 2023?
(A)
A world of 8 billion
(B)
Towards a resilient future for all population
(C)
Ensuring rights and choices for all
(D)
Unleashing the power of gender equality

Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation: The theme for World Population Day 2023 is ‘Unleashing the power of gender equality: Uplifting the voices of women and girls to unlock our world’s infinite possibilities’.

211.
With reference to the Strategic Interventions for Green Hydrogen Transition (SIGHT) program, consider the following statements: 1. The program has been initiated by the G20 with the primary objective of promoting and facilitating the widespread implementation of green hydrogen as a viable and sustainable alternative to traditional fuels. 2. Solar Energy Corporation of India (SECI) is the implementing agency of the program in India. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A)
1 only
(B)
2 only
(C)
Both 1 and 2
(D)
Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: SIGHT is a major financial measure under the National Green Hydrogen Mission. Its objectives are – 1) to maximize production of Green Hydrogen and its derivatives in India 2) Enhance cost-competitiveness of Green Hydrogen and its derivatives vis a-vis fossil-based alternatives and 3) Encourage large scale utilization of Green Hydrogen and its derivatives. SECI is the implementing agency of the programme.

212.
With reference to National Green Tribunal (NGT) consider the following statements: 1. The tribunal is guided by principles of natural justice and is not bound by the mainstream code of civil procedure. 2. The members of the tribunal hold office for a term of five years and are not eligible for reappointment. 3. The chairperson is appointed by the President of India. 4. It acts as an important institution for promoting economic justice.. How many of the statements given above are correct?
(A)
Only one
(B)
Only two
(C)
Only three
(D)
All four

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: NGT is guided by principles of natural justice and is not bound by the mainstream code of civil procedure. The members of the tribunal hold office for a term of five years and are not eligible for reappointment. The chairperson is appointed by the Central Government in consultation with the Chief Justice of India. It acts as an important institution for safeguarding the environment and promoting environmental justice.

213.
With reference to the Internationalization of the currency, consider the following statements: 1. Internationalization of the currency can lower seigniorage benefits. 2. Currency internationalization has an impact on the effectiveness of various monetary policy instruments. 3. Internationalization of rupee may result in increased volatility in the rupee’s exchange rate in the initial stages. How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A)
Only one
(B)
Only two
(C)
All three
(D)
None

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: Internationalization of the currency can lead to higher seigniorage benefits because there will be a greater number of currencies printed. Seigniorage is the difference between the value of currency/money and the cost of producing it. It is essentially the profit earned by the government by printing currency. Currency internationalization has an impact on the effectiveness of various monetary policy instruments. For example, the effectiveness of open market operations as an instrument for influencing interest rate and money supply is likely to reduce in an environment where residents and non-residents are free to buy and sell domestic currency. The RBI group has cautioned that the internationalization of rupee may result in increased volatility in the rupee’s exchange rate in the initial stages.

214.
With reference to Flight Duty Time Limitation (FDTL) norms, consider the following statements: 1. The flight duty time limitations (FDTL) are laid down by the Directorate-General of Civil Aviation (DGCA). 2. It ensures adequate rest timings for pilots and flight attendants and prevents fatigue-related safety issues. . Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A)
1 only
(B)
2 only
(C)
Both 1 and 2
(D)
Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation: The flight duty time limitations (FDTL) are laid down by the Directorate-General of Civil Aviation (DGCA). It ensures adequate rest timings for pilots and flight attendants and prevents fatigue-related safety issues.

215.
Consider the following statements: 1. India currently imports over 90% of its primary energy requirements. 2. Currently, around 42% of the power generation capacity of India is based on non-fossil fuels. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A)
1 only
(B)
2 only
(C)
Both 1 and 2
(D)
Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: India currently imports over 40% of its primary energy requirements, worth over USD 90 billion every year. Currently, around 42% of the power generation capacity of India is based on non-fossil-fuels.

216.
Which of the following criteria are mentioned under the Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers' Rights Act, 2001 for the registration of a new variety 1. Novelty 2. Distinctiveness 3. Uniformity 4. Stability Select the correct answer using the code given below
(A)
1, 2 and 3 only
(B)
2 and 3 only
(C)
1 and 4 only
(D)
1, 2, 3 and 4

Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation: Recently, Delhi HC rejects PepsiCo’s appeal over potato patent A “new variety” as PepsiCo has to conform to the criterion of novelty.

217.
Consider the following statements, with respect to the recently introduced National Research Foundation Bill, 2023 1. It aims to set up the National Research Foundation (NRF), an apex body to provide high-level strategic direction of scientific research in the country as per recommendations of the National Education Policy. 2. Department of Science and Technology (DST) will be the administrative Department of the National Research Foundation. 3. Functions of the National Research Foundation will be governed by an Executive Council chaired by the Principal Scientific Adviser to the Government of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A)
1 only
(B)
1 and 2 only
(C)
1, 2 & 3
(D)
2 and 3 only

Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Union Cabinet, chaired by Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi, today approved the introduction of the National Research Foundation (NRF) Bill, 2023 in the Parliament. The approved Bill will pave the way to establish NRF that will seed, grow and promote Research and Development (R&D)

218.
As per the Antiquities and Art Treasures Act, 1972, which of the following statement describe ‘ANTIQUITY’ 1. Any coin, sculpture, painting, epigraph or other work of art or craftsmanship that has been in existence for not less than fifty years. 2. Manuscript, record, or other document which is of scientific, historical or aesthetic value that is not less than a hundred years Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A)
1 only
(B)
2 only
(C)
Both 1 and 2
(D)
Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation: The Antiquities and Art Treasures Act, 1972, implemented on April 1, 1976, defined “antiquity” as “Any coin, sculpture, painting, epigraph or other work of art or craftsmanship; any article, object or thing detached from a building or cave; any article, object or thing illustrative of science, art, crafts, literature, religion, customs, morals or politics in bygone ages; any article, object or thing of historical interest” that “has been in existence for not less than one hundred years.” For a “manuscript, record or another document which is of scientific, historical, literary or aesthetic value”, this duration is “not less than seventy-five years.”

219.
Which of the following is issued by registered foreign portfolio investors to overseas investors who want to be part of the Indian stock market without registering themselves directly?
(A)
Promissory Note
(B)
Participatory Note
(C)
Commercial Paper
(D)
Certificate of Deposit

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: Participatory Notes are Overseas Derivative Instruments that have Indian stocks as their underlying assets. They allow foreign investors to buy stocks listed on Indian exchanges without being registered. The instrument gained popularity as FIIs, to avoid the formalities of registering and to remain anonymous, started betting on stocks through this route.

220.
PBW RS1 is a variety of crop, which is recently in the news due to reducing risks of type-2 diabetes and cardiovascular diseases
(A)
Rice
(B)
Wheat
(C)
Maize
(D)
Millet

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: Recently, The Ludhiana-based institution, which played a pivotal role during the Green Revolution to make India surplus in foodgrains by developing high-yielding strains, has bred a new wheat variety with high amylose starch content, known to reduce risks of type-2 diabetes and cardiovascular diseases.

221.
What is the disbursal growth of PMMY loans in the first quarter of FY24 compared to the same quarter of the previous year?
(A)
25%
(B)
23%
(C)
29%
(D)
21%

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: The disbursal of PMMY loans increased by 23% to ?81,597 crore in the first quarter of FY24, compared to ?62,650 crore in the same quarter of the previous year.

222.
What was the average size of Mudra loans in FY23?
(A)
73,489
(B)
68,571
(C)
61,238
(D)
50,392

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: The average size of Mudra loans increased to ?73,489 in FY23.

223.
What is the new insurance cover provided under Pradhan Mantri Jan Aarogya Yojana in Gujarat?
(A)
Rs 7 lakhs
(B)
Rs 8 lakhs
(C)
Rs 9 lakhs
(D)
Rs 10 lakhs

Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation: The insurance cover under Pradhan Mantri Jan Aarogya Yojana in Gujarat has been doubled from Rs 5 lakhs to Rs 10 lakhs.

224.
Which category of loans experienced increased demand under Mudra loans leading to the growth in disbursals?
(A)
Tarun
(B)
Kishor
(C)
Shishu
(D)
Both A and B

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: The increased disbursals were driven by the rising demand for Tarun category loans, as borrowers upgraded from the Sishu category of loans.

225.
What is the name of the rare brain-eating amoeba infection recently discovered in South Korea?
(A)
Primary amebic meningoencephalitis (PAM)
(B)
Naegleria fowleri infection
(C)
Brain-Eating Amoeba Syndrome (BEAS)
(D)
South Korean Amoebic Encephalitis (SKAE)

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: The infection caused by the brain-eating amoeba Naegleria fowleri is known as Primary amebic meningoencephalitis (PAM).

226.
In which year did the United Nations (UN) designate July 12 as Malala Day to honor the young woman who advocated for women's education?
(A)
2012
(B)
2013
(C)
2014
(D)
2015

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: In 2013, The United Nations (UN) designated July 12 as Malala Day to honour the young woman who advocated for women's education.

227.
India and which country started a bilateral trade in rupees on 11 July?
(A)
Bangladesh
(B)
Nepal
(C)
Sri Lanka
(D)
Bhutan

Correct Answer: ()
Explanation: Bilateral trade in rupees started by India and Bangladesh.

228.
SC holds the extension granted to Sanjay Mishra as invalid. Sanjay Mishra is the director of ___________.
(A)
Enforcement Directorate
(B)
Central Bureau of Investigation
(C)
Narcotics Control Bureau
(D)
Directorate General of Civil Aviation

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: SC holds the extension granted to E Director Sanjay Mishra as invalid.

229.
Abhijit Chakravorty has been appointed as MD and CEO of which of the following?
(A)
SBI Card
(B)
Axis Bank
(C)
HDFC Bank
(D)
IDFC Bank

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: Abhijit Chakravorty has been appointed as MD and CEO of SBI card.

230.
Which of the following has been recently exempted by GST Council from GST? 1. Cancer-fighting drugs 2. Medicines for rare diseases 3. Food products for special medical purposes Select the correct answer using the following codes.
(A)
1 and 2 only
(B)
2 and 3 only
(C)
1 and 3 only
(D)
1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation: GST Council has exempted cancer-fighting drugs, medicines for rare diseases, and food products for special medical purposes from GST.

231.
Which of the following will be made compulsory for the MSME pharma sector in a phased manner?
(A)
Schedule P
(B)
Schedule M
(C)
Schedule K
(D)
Schedule L

Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation: Special squads have been formed to take stringent action against pharmaceutical companies manufacturing spurious drugs.

232.
National Fish Farmers Day Meet - 2023 concluded at which place?
(A)
Kanpur
(B)
Madurai
(C)
Chennai
(D)
Mahabalipuram

Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation: National Fish Farmers Day Meet - 2023 concluded at Mahabalipuram.

233.
Which country secured the first position in the medal tally at the 34th International Biology Olympiad, UAE?
(A)
Japan
(B)
India
(C)
China
(D)
UAE

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: India secured the first position in the medal tally at the 34th International Biology Olympiad, UAE.

234.
Which of the following statements is correct about multidimensional poverty? 1. 315 million Indians came out of multidimensional poverty in 15 years. 2. The MPI measures poverty across 15 indicators in five dimensions. Select the correct code:
(A)
1 only
(B)
2 only
(C)
1 and 2
(D)
None of the above

Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation: 415 million Indians came out of multidimensional poverty in 15 years: UNDP

235.
Uttar Pradesh has become the ________ state in India in the disposal of cases of crimes against women.
(A)
First
(B)
Second
(C)
Third
(D)
Fourth

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: Uttar Pradesh is in second position in India in the disposal of cases of crimes against women.

236.
Consider the following statements about Cheetah: 1. Chettah are declared extinct in India in the 1950s. 2. African Cheetahs are listed as ‘Endangered’ by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List of Threatened Species 3. Recently, Nauradehi Wildlife Sanctuary, Madhya Pradesh is selecting as the first site for the reintroduction of Cheetahs in India. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A)
1 and 2 only
(B)
1 only
(C)
2 & 3 only
(D)
1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Cheetah, the world's fastest land animal was declared extinct in India in 1952. Cheetah is the only large carnivore to have become extinct in Independent India.

237.
Which of the following activities is/ are subject to taxation under the Goods and service tax 1. Online Gaming 2. Casinos 3. Horse-racing Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(A)
1 & 2 only
(B)
3 only
(C)
1 & 3 only
(D)
1, 2 & 3

Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation: Recently, THE GOODS and Services Tax (GST) Council, in its 50th meeting on decided to levy a uniform 28 per cent tax on full face value for online gaming, casinos and horse-racing, while reducing the rate for uncooked/ unfried snack pellets, cancer medicine and imitation zari thread.

238.
Defence Acquisition Council (DAC) is chaired by whom?
(A)
Prime Minister
(B)
Defense minister
(C)
Defence Secretary
(D)
Chief of Defence Staff

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: The DAC is the highest decision-making body in the Defence Ministry for deciding on new policies and capital acquisitions for the three services (Army, Navy and Air Force) and the Indian Coast Guard.

239.
Consider the following statements, with respect to the Chandrayaan-3 mission 1.It is a follow-on mission to Chandrayaan-2 to demonstrate end-to-end capability in safe landing and roving on the lunar surface 2. The mission aims for a safe landing on south pole of the moon. 3. It will be launched by Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV-XL) Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A)
1 & 2 only
(B)
2 & 3 only
(C)
1 & 3 only
(D)
1, 2 & 3

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: Chandrayaan-3 is a follow-on mission to Chandrayaan-2 to demonstrate end-to-end capability in safe landing and roving on the lunar surface. It consists of Lander and Rover configurations.

240.
Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Solar flares’ 1. Solar flares affect all layers of the solar atmosphere 2. Flares produce radiation across the electromagnetic spectrum at all wavelengths 3. Flares occur in active regions and are always accompanied by coronal mass ejections How many of the statement(s) given above are correct?
(A)
1 only
(B)
2 only
(C)
All three
(D)
None

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: Solar flares affect all layers of the solar atmosphere (photosphere, chromosphere, and corona). The plasma medium is heated to tens of millions of kelvins, while electrons, protons, and heavier ions are accelerated to near the speed of light. Flares produce electromagnetic radiation across the electromagnetic spectrum at all wavelengths, from radio waves to gamma rays. Most of the energy is spread over frequencies outside the visual range; the majority of the flares are not visible to the naked eye and can only be observed with special instruments.

241.
With reference to ‘The Forest (Conservation) Amendment Bill, 2023’, consider the following statements 1. The Bill extends its remit to land which is not officially classified as ‘forest’ in State or Central government records. 2. It exempts land within 100 km of India’s border needed for national security from the purview of the Act. 3. The state government requires prior approval of the central government to assign any forest land to any entity How many of the statement(s) given above are correct?
(A)
1 only
(B)
2 only
(C)
All three
(D)
None

Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation: The Act empowers the Centre to require that any forest land diverted for non-forestry purposes be duly compensated. It also extends its remit to land which is not officially classified as ‘forest’ in State or Central government records. It also exempts certain types of land from the purview of the Act. These include land within 100 km of India’s border needed for national security projects, small roadside amenities, and public roads leading to a habitation.

242.
Consider the following statements about ‘Hydrogen Fuel-Cell Buses’ Statement 1 – These buses do not produce any carbon emissions Statement 2 – Hydrogen fuel cells use hydrogen as a fuel that combines hydrogen and oxygen to produce electrical energy and water Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(A)
Both Statement-I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(B)
Both Statement-I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(C)
Statement-I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(D)
Statement -I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: The hydrogen buses are like an electric bus, in that hydrogen interacts with a ‘fuel cell’ battery producing electricity and no carbon emissions. Hydrogen fuel cells use hydrogen as a fuel in an electrochemical process that combines hydrogen and oxygen to produce electrical energy and water. At the anode, a catalyst separates the hydrogen molecules into protons and electrons and both subatomic particles take different paths to the cathode.

243.
Potato variety FC5’ was recently seen in the news due to
(A)
First GM vegetable to be approved
(B)
Patent revocation
(C)
Ability to grow in any type of soil
(D)
Fungus attack

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: PepsiCo company supplies the FC5 seed variety to a group of farmers who grow the potatoes exclusively for PepsiCo at a fixed price. PepsiCo claims that it developed the FC5 variety and registered its traits in 2016. The FC5 potato variety is known for its lower moisture content, making it ideal for snack production, particularly potato chips. The Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers’ Rights (PPVFR) Authority in 2021 revoked the intellectual protection granted to PepsiCo’s FC5 potato variety, stating that Indian regulations do not permit patents on seed varieties.

244.
Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Chemical Weapons Convention’ 1. It is an arms control treaty administered by the International Atomic Energy Agency 2. It is the only arms convention to be universally ratified Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A)
1 only
(B)
2 only
(C)
Both 1 and 2
(D)
Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation: The Chemical Weapons Convention (CWC), officially the Convention on the Prohibition of the Development, Production, Stockpiling and Use of Chemical Weapons and on their Destruction, is an arms control treaty administered by the Organisation for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons (OPCW), an intergovernmental organization based in The Hague, The Netherlands

245.
What was India’s score in the United Nations’ Economic and Social Commission for Asia Pacific’s (UNESCAP) global survey on digital and sustainable trade facilitation in 2023?
(A)
90.32%
(B)
93.55%
(C)
78.49%
(D)
68.49%

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: India’s score in the UNESCAP survey rose to 93.55% in 2023 from 90.32% in 2021, showcasing significant improvement.

246.
According to the Goldman Sachs report, by which year is India expected to surpass the United States to become the world’s second-largest economy?
(A)
2075
(B)
2070
(C)
2035
(D)
2050

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: The report predicts that India will overtake the US and become the world’s second-largest economy by 2075.

247.
What is the projected GDP of India by 2075, according to the Goldman Sachs report?
(A)
$62.5 trillion
(B)
$52.5 trillion
(C)
$82.5 trillion
(D)
$65.5 trillion

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: The report suggests India will surpass the US in terms of GDP, reaching $52.5 trillion by 2075.

248.
What is the growth percentage of net direct tax collection in the current fiscal year?
(A)
14.65%
(B)
15.87%
(C)
16%
(D)
None of the above

Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation: The net direct tax collection in the current fiscal year has grown by 16% compared to the corresponding period last year.

249.
Operation Broader Sword aimed to prevent the shipment of which of the following items?
(A)
Illicit pharmaceuticals and precursor chemicals
(B)
Counterfeit luxury goods
(C)
Stolen artwork
(D)
Unauthorized electronic devices

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: Operation Broader Sword focused on stopping the illegal shipment of pharmaceuticals and precursor chemicals through the International Mail System.

250.
What is UPI 123PAY?
(A)
A digital payment platform for merchants
(B)
A cardless payment solution
(C)
A smartphone application for UPI payments
(D)
An IVR-based UPI solution

Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation: UPI 123PAY is an IVR-based UPI solution launched by Punjab National Bank (PNB) to enable UPI transactions through phone calls.